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People — leading & managing the team

Leading and managing the team

PMP's 'People' domain is about 42% of the exam, and this is its beating heart. You are expected to know servant leadership, conflict handling, team development, and how to spot and fix performance issues - all through an agile-and-predictive-agnostic lens.

Servant leadership

Modern PMI doctrine favours servant leadership over command-and-control. The servant leader removes blockers, coaches, shields the team from noise, and grows people's capability rather than directing every task. Emotional intelligence (EI) is the tool: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, relationship management.

Tuckman's stages of team development

  • Forming - polite, unsure, low output.
  • Storming - conflict emerges as roles and ideas clash.
  • Norming - team starts cooperating and trusting.
  • Performing - high performance, low supervision needed.
  • Adjourning - team disbands at project close.

A project manager's leadership style should flex per stage - directive early, more hands-off by Performing.

Conflict resolution modes (know all five)

  • Withdraw/avoid - retreat from a conflict; use when the issue is trivial or more time is needed.
  • Smooth/accommodate - emphasise agreement over differences; preserves harmony but doesn't solve root cause.
  • Compromise - both sides give up something; lose-lose but fast.
  • Force/direct - one view wins; use only in emergencies or on safety issues.
  • Collaborate/problem-solve - the gold-standard win-win; incorporates multiple viewpoints, takes longest, PMI's preferred default.

Common mistakes to avoid on exam questions

  • Don't pick 'force' or 'compromise' when 'collaborate' is offered as an option - collaborate is nearly always the best answer unless time-critical or safety-critical.
  • Don't confuse a Team Charter (ground rules the team agrees together) with a RACI chart (who does what).
  • Recognise that conflict is normal and often healthy - the PM's job is to manage it, not eliminate it.
  • Escalation is a last resort, only after the PM and team have tried to resolve it directly.
  • Virtual/distributed teams need extra deliberate communication planning - don't assume co-located norms apply.

Motivation theories worth knowing

  • Maslow's hierarchy - physiological through self-actualisation.
  • Herzberg's two-factor - hygiene factors (pay, conditions) prevent dissatisfaction but don't motivate; motivators (growth, recognition) drive performance.
  • McGregor's Theory X/Y - X assumes people dislike work and need control, Y assumes people are self-motivated; PMI favours Theory Y thinking.

Remember: exam scenarios test judgement, not memorised definitions - always pick the answer that best serves the team and the project's outcome, in that order.

  • Servant leadership - not command-and-control - is PMI's default leadership model for project managers
  • Tuckman's five stages, in order, are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
  • There are exactly five conflict resolution modes: withdraw, smooth, compromise, force, and collaborate
  • Collaborate/problem-solve is PMI's preferred conflict resolution approach because it produces a win-win outcome
  • Force/direct should only be used in emergencies or safety-critical situations
  • Withdraw/avoid is appropriate for trivial issues or when more time is needed to cool down
  • Escalation to management is a last resort, only after direct resolution attempts have failed
  • Herzberg's two-factor theory splits hygiene factors (prevent dissatisfaction) from motivators (drive performance)
  • McGregor's Theory Y assumes people are self-motivated and is the mindset PMI encourages in PMs
  • Emotional intelligence has four components: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, relationship management
  • The People domain makes up roughly 42% of the PMP exam content
  • A Team Charter records agreed ground rules; it is not the same as a RACI chart, which maps roles and responsibilities
What leadership style does PMI favour for modern project managers?
Servant leadership - removing blockers, coaching, and growing the team rather than commanding it
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List Tuckman's five stages of team development in order
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
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During which Tuckman stage does conflict typically peak?
Storming
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Name all five conflict resolution modes
Withdraw/avoid, Smooth/accommodate, Compromise, Force/direct, Collaborate/problem-solve
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Which conflict mode is PMI's preferred default and why?
Collaborate/problem-solve - it produces a win-win by incorporating multiple viewpoints
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When is force/direct an acceptable conflict response?
Only in emergencies or safety-critical situations
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When should a PM use withdraw/avoid?
When the issue is trivial or more time is needed before addressing it
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What's the downside of the compromise conflict mode?
It's lose-lose - both sides give something up rather than reaching a true win-win
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What are the four components of emotional intelligence?
Self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, relationship management
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What does Herzberg's two-factor theory distinguish?
Hygiene factors (prevent dissatisfaction, e.g. pay) versus motivators (drive performance, e.g. growth and recognition)
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What does McGregor's Theory Y assume about people, and which does PMI favour?
Theory Y assumes people are self-motivated; PMI favours this mindset over Theory X control
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What is a Team Charter and how does it differ from a RACI chart?
A Team Charter records ground rules the team agrees together; a RACI chart maps who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed
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What should a PM do before escalating a team conflict?
Attempt direct resolution with the team first - escalation is a last resort
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Approximately what share of the PMP exam is the People domain?
About 42%
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On the exam, when should you avoid picking 'collaborate' as the conflict answer?
When the scenario is time-critical or safety-critical, where force or withdraw may be more appropriate
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Process — technical project management

What 'technical project management' covers

This is the biggest of the three PMP domains (about half the exam). It is the hands-on mechanics of running a project: planning, scheduling, budgeting, scope, risk, quality, and integrating all of it into one coherent plan. It applies whichever approach you use - predictive (waterfall), agile, or hybrid.

Planning and integration

  • The project charter authorises the project and names the project manager - work never starts on scope, budget or schedule before it exists.
  • The project management plan is the master document; subsidiary plans (scope, schedule, cost, quality, resource, communications, risk, procurement, stakeholder) all roll up into it.
  • Integrated change control means every change request goes through one controlled process, usually via a Change Control Board (CCB) - never action a change informally, even a 'small' one.
  • Progressive elaboration: plans get more detailed as more information becomes available, especially on agile or hybrid projects.

Scope, schedule and cost

  • Scope baseline = scope statement + WBS + WBS dictionary; decomposition breaks deliverables down until each work package is manageable (roughly 8-80 hours as a rule of thumb).
  • Critical path = the longest sequence of dependent tasks; it has zero float and sets the shortest possible project duration.
  • Float (slack) is the time a task can slip without delaying the finish date - free float affects only the next task, total float affects the whole path.
  • Earned Value Management: SV = EV - PV, CV = EV - AC, SPI = EV/PV, CPI = EV/AC. A CPI or SPI below 1.0 means over budget or behind schedule; above 1.0 is favourable.
  • Three-point (PERT) estimate: (Optimistic + 4×Most likely + Pessimistic) / 6.

Risk and quality

  • Risks are logged in the risk register; each gets a probability, impact, owner and response strategy.
  • Response strategies: for threats - avoid, mitigate, transfer, accept; for opportunities - exploit, enhance, share, accept.
  • Quality is planned in, not inspected in at the end - cost of quality (prevention + appraisal) is cheaper than cost of poor quality (internal + external failure).
  • Contingency reserve covers known-unknowns (identified risks); management reserve covers unknown-unknowns and needs sponsor approval to use.

Common mistakes to avoid on the exam

  • Don't confuse the critical path (longest duration) with the highest-risk path - they're different concepts.
  • Don't pick 'escalate to sponsor' as a default answer - PMP favours the PM solving problems directly first.
  • Remember CPI/SPI: numbers ABOVE 1.0 are good, BELOW 1.0 are bad - it's easy to mix these up under exam pressure.
  • A change, even a tiny one, always goes through the change control process - there's no such thing as an off-the-books favour.
  • The project charter must exist and authorise the PM before any scope, schedule or budget work begins.
  • Scope baseline = scope statement + WBS + WBS dictionary.
  • Critical path is the longest sequence of dependent tasks and has zero float.
  • Cost Variance CV = EV minus AC; Schedule Variance SV = EV minus PV.
  • CPI = EV/AC and SPI = EV/PV; below 1.0 is unfavourable, above 1.0 is favourable.
  • PERT three-point estimate = (Optimistic + 4 x Most Likely + Pessimistic) divided by 6.
  • Threat response strategies are avoid, mitigate, transfer, accept; opportunity strategies are exploit, enhance, share, accept.
  • Contingency reserve covers known-unknowns; management reserve covers unknown-unknowns and needs sponsor sign-off to release.
  • All changes, however small, go through integrated change control via the Change Control Board.
  • Work packages in a WBS are typically sized around 8 to 80 hours of effort.
  • Cost of quality (prevention plus appraisal) is always cheaper than the cost of poor quality (internal plus external failure).
  • Free float delays only the next activity; total float delays the whole project finish date.
What authorises a project and names the project manager?
The project charter.
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What makes up the scope baseline?
Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
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What is the critical path?
The longest sequence of dependent tasks through the schedule, with zero float; it sets the minimum project duration.
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How do you calculate Cost Variance (CV)?
CV = EV - AC (Earned Value minus Actual Cost).
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How do you calculate Schedule Variance (SV)?
SV = EV - PV (Earned Value minus Planned Value).
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What does a CPI of 0.8 mean?
The project is over budget - only getting 80 pence of value for every pound spent.
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What does an SPI above 1.0 mean?
The project is ahead of schedule.
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What is the PERT three-point estimate formula?
(Optimistic + 4 x Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6.
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Name the four threat response strategies.
Avoid, mitigate, transfer, accept.
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Name the four opportunity response strategies.
Exploit, enhance, share, accept.
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What's the difference between contingency and management reserve?
Contingency reserve covers known-unknowns (identified risks); management reserve covers unknown-unknowns and needs sponsor approval to use.
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What body approves changes on a project?
The Change Control Board (CCB), via integrated change control.
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What's the typical size of a WBS work package?
Roughly 8 to 80 hours of effort.
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What's the difference between free float and total float?
Free float delays only the next activity; total float is how much a task can slip without delaying the whole project finish.
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Which costs less: cost of quality or cost of poor quality?
Cost of quality (prevention plus appraisal) is always cheaper than cost of poor quality (internal plus external failure).
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Business environment & compliance

Why this topic matters

PMP exam content is split across three domains: People, Process, and Business Environment. Business Environment is the smallest slice (about 8 percent of exam questions) but it trips people up because it is less about mechanics and more about judgement — connecting project work to organisational strategy, governance, compliance and benefit realisation.

Core ideas to know

  • Projects exist to deliver business value, not just outputs. Always tie project decisions back to the organisation's strategic goals and business case.
  • The business case justifies the investment before the project charter is signed off. It should be revisited at phase gates to confirm the project is still worth doing.
  • Benefits realisation does not stop at project closure. A benefits management plan tracks value delivery often long after the project team disbands, sometimes owned by an operations or business owner.
  • Compliance means meeting external laws, regulations, standards and internal policies. The project manager must identify applicable compliance requirements early (during initiating and planning) and build them into scope, quality and risk plans, not bolt them on later.
  • Regulatory and legal requirements are usually non-negotiable constraints, unlike organisational policies which may sometimes be tailored with sponsor approval.
  • External business environment factors to scan for: legal, regulatory, geopolitical, market, social and technological changes (a classic PESTLE-style scan), because any of these can trigger scope or risk changes mid-project.
  • Organisational Process Assets (OPAs) and Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) both shape how compliance is handled: EEFs are things you don't control (laws, market conditions, culture); OPAs are internal templates, policies and lessons learned you do control.
  • A project manager should support organisational change management, helping the business adopt project outputs so benefits are actually realised.

Common mistakes

  • Treating compliance as a one-off checkbox at the start rather than an ongoing thread through the whole lifecycle.
  • Confusing the business case (why do this project) with the benefits management plan (how we will measure and sustain the value afterwards) — they are separate but linked artefacts.
  • Assuming the project manager owns benefits realisation alone; it is usually a shared responsibility with the sponsor and business owner.
  • Ignoring external environment shifts (new law, new regulation) once the project is underway — the exam rewards proactively monitoring and adapting.
  • Forgetting that non-compliance can trigger legal, financial and reputational risk, so compliance requirements belong in the risk register too.

Exam tip

When a scenario mentions a new regulation, an audit, or a question of whether the project still aligns with strategy, think 'business environment' first — the correct answer usually involves updating the business case, checking compliance requirements, or escalating to the sponsor rather than the PM unilaterally deciding.

  • Business Environment is roughly 8 percent of PMP exam content, the smallest of the three domains.
  • The business case justifies project investment and should be reviewed at each phase gate, not just at the start.
  • A benefits management plan tracks value realisation and often continues after the project itself closes.
  • Compliance requirements (legal, regulatory, standards) must be identified during initiating and planning, then threaded through scope, quality and risk plans.
  • Legal and regulatory requirements are generally non-negotiable, unlike internal organisational policies which can sometimes be tailored.
  • EEFs (Enterprise Environmental Factors) are external conditions you do not control, such as laws, markets and culture.
  • OPAs (Organisational Process Assets) are internal templates, policies, and lessons learned that you do control and can update.
  • PESTLE-style scanning (political, economic, social, technological, legal, environmental) helps spot business environment risks early.
  • Non-compliance risk should be logged in the risk register, not treated as a separate silo issue.
  • The project manager supports organisational change management so the business actually adopts and benefits from project outputs.
  • Benefits realisation is typically a shared responsibility between the project manager, sponsor and business owner, not the PM alone.
  • When exam scenarios mention new regulation or a strategy misalignment, the safe answer usually involves updating the business case or escalating, not a unilateral PM decision.
What percentage of the PMP exam covers the Business Environment domain?
Roughly 8 percent — the smallest of the three domains (People, Process, Business Environment).
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What is the purpose of a business case?
To justify the investment in a project before the charter is approved, and to be revisited at phase gates to confirm the project still delivers value.
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What is a benefits management plan and when does it end?
A plan tracking how and when project benefits are realised; it often continues well after the project closes, since benefits mature over time.
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When should compliance requirements be identified?
Early — during initiating and planning — then built into scope, quality and risk management throughout the lifecycle.
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Are legal and regulatory requirements negotiable?
No, they are generally non-negotiable constraints, unlike internal organisational policies which can sometimes be tailored with sponsor approval.
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What are Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs)?
External conditions the organisation does not control, such as laws, regulations, market conditions and culture.
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What are Organisational Process Assets (OPAs)?
Internal templates, policies, procedures and lessons learned that the organisation controls and can update over time.
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What framework is useful for scanning the external business environment?
A PESTLE-style scan: Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental.
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Where should non-compliance risk be recorded?
In the project risk register, alongside other project risks, not managed as a separate silo.
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Who is typically responsible for organisational change management around project outputs?
The project manager supports it, but adoption and benefit realisation are usually shared with the sponsor and business owner.
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What is a common exam mistake regarding compliance?
Treating compliance as a one-off checkbox at project start rather than an ongoing thread through the whole project lifecycle.
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If a scenario mentions a new regulation appearing mid-project, what is usually the best response?
Update the business case and compliance/risk plans, and escalate to the sponsor as needed — not make a unilateral PM decision.
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How does the business case differ from the benefits management plan?
The business case explains why the project is worth doing upfront; the benefits management plan defines how value will be measured and sustained afterwards.
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Why does compliance belong in risk management as well as quality management?
Because non-compliance carries legal, financial and reputational risk, not just a quality defect.
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What should trigger a project manager to reassess scope or risk mid-project?
Any shift in the external business environment — new law, regulation, market or geopolitical change — should trigger a proactive reassessment.
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Agile & hybrid approaches

What 'agile' means on the PMP

Agile is a mindset built on the Agile Manifesto's 4 values and 12 principles - individuals and interactions over processes and tools, working product over documentation, customer collaboration over contract negotiation, responding to change over following a plan. The exam tests values, not just frameworks like Scrum.

Hybrid approaches

A hybrid approach blends predictive (waterfall) and agile elements - for example fixed-scope hardware delivered predictively while the software layer is built in sprints. Choose hybrid when parts of the project have high certainty and other parts have high uncertainty or changing requirements. The PMP treats 'tailoring' as picking the right blend for the context, not forcing one method everywhere.

Key agile roles and events

  • Product Owner: owns and prioritises the backlog, maximises product value.
  • Scrum Master / team facilitator: removes impediments, protects the team, coaches agile practice.
  • Development team: cross-functional, self-organising, typically 3-9 people.
  • Sprint length: fixed timebox, commonly 1-4 weeks, most often 2 weeks.
  • Daily standup: 15 minutes, same time/place, three questions (done, doing, blockers).
  • Sprint review: inspect the increment with stakeholders.
  • Retrospective: inspect the process and agree improvements for next sprint.

Estimating and flow

Story points size relative effort/complexity, not hours. Velocity = story points completed per sprint, used to forecast future capacity - never compare velocity between different teams. Kanban uses a pull system with WIP limits and measures cycle time and lead time rather than sprints. Burndown charts show remaining work over time; burnup charts show progress against a growing or fixed scope.

Servant leadership

Agile favours servant leadership - the PM/coach serves the team, removes obstacles, and pushes decision-making down to the team rather than commanding. This is a heavily tested mindset shift from traditional command-and-control PM.

Common mistakes

  • Do not pick 'predictive' just because the question mentions a large or complex project - complexity plus changing requirements usually points to agile or hybrid.
  • Do not confuse story points (relative sizing) with hours (absolute time).
  • Do not assume Scrum Master is a project manager - the role facilitates, it does not direct.
  • Do not think agile means no documentation - it means just enough documentation, only what adds value.
  • Remember tailoring is a PMBOK/PMP principle: adapt the approach, artefacts and events to fit the project, team and organisation.
  • A sprint is a fixed timebox, most commonly 2 weeks (range 1-4 weeks), and its length does not change once set.
  • Daily standups are timeboxed to 15 minutes and answer: what I did, what I will do, what is blocking me.
  • Velocity measures story points completed per sprint and is used only to forecast that same team's future capacity.
  • Story points measure relative effort and complexity, not actual hours or days.
  • Product Owner prioritises and owns the backlog; Scrum Master/facilitator removes impediments and coaches the process.
  • Hybrid approaches combine predictive and agile elements when a project has both high-certainty and high-uncertainty components.
  • Servant leadership means the PM removes obstacles and empowers the self-organising team rather than directing tasks.
  • Kanban is a pull system that limits work in progress (WIP) and tracks cycle time and lead time, with no fixed sprints.
  • The Agile Manifesto has 4 values and 12 supporting principles, favouring individuals, working product, collaboration and responding to change.
  • Retrospectives review the team's process and ways of working; sprint reviews inspect the actual product increment with stakeholders.
  • A development team is cross-functional and self-organising, typically sized around 3-9 members.
  • Tailoring means adapting the approach, artefacts and cadence to the project's context rather than applying one method rigidly.
What is the typical sprint length in Scrum?
A fixed timebox, most commonly 2 weeks, within a general range of 1-4 weeks.
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How long is a daily standup and what three questions does it cover?
15 minutes; what I did yesterday, what I will do today, and what is blocking me.
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What does velocity measure and how should it be used?
Story points completed per sprint, used only to forecast that same team's future capacity - never compared across teams.
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Do story points measure time?
No - they measure relative effort and complexity, not hours or days.
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What does the Product Owner do?
Owns and prioritises the product backlog to maximise value delivered.
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What is the role of a Scrum Master or team facilitator?
Removes impediments, protects the team, and coaches agile practice - they do not direct the work.
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When should a hybrid approach be chosen?
When parts of the project have high certainty (suited to predictive) and other parts have high uncertainty or changing requirements (suited to agile).
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What is servant leadership in an agile context?
The PM/coach serves the team by removing obstacles and pushing decisions down, rather than commanding and controlling.
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How does Kanban differ from Scrum in terms of cadence?
Kanban uses a continuous pull system with WIP limits and no fixed sprints, measuring cycle time and lead time instead.
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What are the 4 values of the Agile Manifesto?
Individuals and interactions over processes and tools; working product over documentation; customer collaboration over contract negotiation; responding to change over following a plan.
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What happens in a sprint review versus a retrospective?
Sprint review inspects the product increment with stakeholders; retrospective inspects the team's process and agrees improvements.
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What is 'tailoring' on the PMP exam?
Adapting the approach, artefacts and events to fit the specific project, team and organisational context, rather than forcing one fixed method.
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Roughly how big is a self-organising agile development team?
Cross-functional, typically around 3-9 members.
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What is a common PMP trap about complex projects?
Complexity alone does not mean predictive - complexity combined with changing requirements usually points to agile or hybrid, not waterfall.
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Risk, procurement & stakeholders

Risk management

Risk is 'an uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect'. PMP tests that you treat threats AND opportunities the same process.

  • Identify Risks feeds a living Risk Register (owner, trigger, response) and the Risk Report (overall project exposure).
  • Qualitative analysis uses a probability-impact matrix to rank risks fast; Quantitative analysis (e.g. Monte Carlo, expected monetary value/EMV) puts numbers on cost and schedule exposure.
  • EMV = probability x impact. Add EMVs across a decision tree's branches to pick the best option.
  • Threat responses: avoid, mitigate, transfer, escalate, accept.
  • Opportunity responses: exploit, enhance, share, escalate, accept.
  • Contingency reserve covers KNOWN risks (identified, in the register); management reserve covers UNKNOWN-unknowns and needs a change request to release. Common trap: exam mixes these two up.
  • Risk appetite (broad willingness to take on risk) vs risk threshold (the measurable line you won't cross) vs risk tolerance (the acceptable range of variation).
  • A risk is only 'closed' when it can no longer occur or its response is complete - review this at every status meeting.

Procurement

  • Contract types sit on a risk spectrum: Fixed Price (seller carries cost risk), Cost-Reimbursable (buyer carries cost risk), Time & Materials (hybrid, used for small/undefined scope).
  • Common fixed-price variants: FFP (Firm Fixed Price), FPIF (Fixed Price Incentive Fee - shares savings/overruns via a Price Ceiling), FP-EPA (Economic Price Adjustment - for multi-year contracts vulnerable to inflation).
  • Point of Total Assumption (PTA) is the cost above which the seller absorbs all further overrun in an FPIF contract.
  • Cost-reimbursable variants: CPFF (fixed fee, no incentive), CPIF (fee varies with performance), CPAF (fee is mostly subjective, buyer-determined).
  • Procurement documents: RFI (gather information), RFQ (get a price for standard items), RFP (full proposal for complex needs) - know which one fits which scenario.
  • The Procurement Statement of Work (SOW) is what goes OUT to sellers; the make-or-buy analysis decides whether you need a seller at all.
  • Source selection criteria should be set BEFORE bids arrive, never adjusted afterwards to favour a preferred bidder.

Stakeholder management

  • Process order: Identify Stakeholders -> Plan Stakeholder Engagement -> Manage Stakeholder Engagement -> Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
  • The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix tracks each stakeholder's CURRENT vs DESIRED engagement level: Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading.
  • Power/interest grid decides communication effort: high power + high interest = manage closely; high power + low interest = keep satisfied.
  • The exam favours proactive, continuous stakeholder engagement over one-off identification at kickoff - stakeholders change across the lifecycle, so re-assess regularly.
  • Common mistake: treating a difficult stakeholder as a 'people problem' to escalate immediately, rather than first trying to understand their underlying interest and adjust the engagement plan.
  • EMV (expected monetary value) = probability x impact, summed across decision-tree branches to compare options
  • Threat strategies: avoid, mitigate, transfer, escalate, accept - opportunity strategies: exploit, enhance, share, escalate, accept
  • Contingency reserve covers KNOWN risks in the register; management reserve covers unknown-unknowns and needs a change request to access
  • FFP, FPIF and FP-EPA are the three main fixed-price contract types; FPIF has a Price Ceiling and a Point of Total Assumption (PTA)
  • CPFF, CPIF and CPAF are the three cost-reimbursable contract types, with CPAF fee being the most subjective
  • Time & Materials contracts are a hybrid used for small, undefined-scope work and carry an open-ended cost risk for the buyer
  • RFI asks for information, RFQ asks for a price on standard items, RFP asks for a full proposal on complex requirements
  • Source selection criteria must be defined before bids are received, never adjusted afterwards
  • Stakeholder engagement levels run Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading - tracked as current vs desired
  • Stakeholder process order is Identify, Plan Engagement, Manage Engagement, Monitor Engagement, and it repeats through the project
  • Risk appetite is general willingness to take risk; risk threshold is the hard limit; risk tolerance is the acceptable range of variation
  • A risk closes only when it can no longer occur or its response has been completed, reviewed at every status meeting
What does EMV stand for and how is it calculated?
Expected Monetary Value = probability x impact; sum across decision-tree branches to compare options
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Name the five threat response strategies
Avoid, mitigate, transfer, escalate, accept
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Name the five opportunity response strategies
Exploit, enhance, share, escalate, accept
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Difference between contingency reserve and management reserve?
Contingency covers known risks in the register (PM controls it); management reserve covers unknown-unknowns and needs a change request to release
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What is the Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?
In an FPIF contract, the cost above the Price Ceiling where the seller absorbs all further cost overrun
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List the three fixed-price contract types
FFP (Firm Fixed Price), FPIF (Fixed Price Incentive Fee), FP-EPA (Economic Price Adjustment)
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List the three cost-reimbursable contract types
CPFF (Cost Plus Fixed Fee), CPIF (Cost Plus Incentive Fee), CPAF (Cost Plus Award Fee)
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When is a Time & Materials contract typically used?
For small, undefined-scope work; it is a hybrid that carries open-ended cost risk for the buyer
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What is the difference between an RFI, RFQ and RFP?
RFI gathers information, RFQ requests a price on standard items, RFP requests a full proposal for complex needs
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When should source selection criteria be defined?
Before bids are received - never adjusted afterwards to favour a bidder
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What are the four levels tracked on the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix, from lowest to highest?
Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading (current vs desired)
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What is the correct order of the Stakeholder Management processes?
Identify Stakeholders, Plan Stakeholder Engagement, Manage Stakeholder Engagement, Monitor Stakeholder Engagement - repeated throughout the project
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Define risk threshold vs risk tolerance
Threshold is the hard measurable limit that must not be crossed; tolerance is the acceptable range of variation around a target
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What document captures the make-or-buy decision output going out to sellers?
The Procurement Statement of Work (SOW)
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On a power/interest grid, how do you treat a high-power, low-interest stakeholder?
Keep satisfied - monitor and address concerns without over-communicating
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Project lifecycle & performance domains

What the project lifecycle actually is

A project moves through phases from start to finish: starting the project, organising and preparing, carrying out the work, and closing the project. PMI does not mandate one fixed set of phase names — lifecycles can be predictive (plan-driven, phases done in sequence), adaptive/agile (iterative, work delivered in short cycles), or hybrid (a mix, e.g. predictive planning with agile delivery). The exam expects you to pick the right lifecycle for the context, not recite one true version.

Predictive vs adaptive vs hybrid

  • Predictive: scope, schedule and cost are defined early and changes go through formal change control. Good for well-understood, low-uncertainty work (construction, regulated builds).
  • Adaptive: requirements emerge and evolve through iterations; change is expected and welcomed. Good for high-uncertainty, evolving-requirement work (new software features).
  • Hybrid: blends both, often predictive at a programme level with adaptive delivery teams underneath.

The 8 performance domains (replaced the old 5 process groups + 10 knowledge areas in the 7th edition)

  • Stakeholders — identifying, understanding and engaging people affected by or affecting the project.
  • Team — leadership, team culture, and creating a high-performing team environment.
  • Development approach and life cycle — choosing predictive, adaptive or hybrid and setting cadence.
  • Planning — evolving plans across scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources and risk.
  • Project work — managing processes, resources, procurement and continuous learning.
  • Delivery — meeting requirements, scope and quality to produce the intended business value.
  • Measurement — tracking performance and taking appropriate action (EVM, KPIs, forecasts).
  • Uncertainty — identifying and responding to risk, ambiguity and complexity.

Common mistakes

  • Confusing performance domains (7th edition, outcome-focused, interacting throughout the project) with the old 5 process groups (initiating, planning, executing, monitoring & controlling, closing) — both can appear on the exam, but the process groups describe sequential-ish activity, while domains are continuous and overlapping.
  • Assuming every project must use one lifecycle type throughout — hybrid is common and PMI-endorsed.
  • Thinking phases must always be sequential — in adaptive lifecycles, phases can overlap and repeat.
  • Forgetting that performance domains are interdependent — a change in one (e.g. uncertainty) affects others (e.g. planning, delivery) simultaneously, not in isolation.

Exam tip

Situational questions describing an outcome (e.g. 'the team is not engaging stakeholders effectively') map to a performance domain, not a single process step. Read for which domain is failing, then pick the action that best serves that domain's intent — value delivery over rigid process-following.

  • PMI's 7th edition organises work around 8 performance domains, not the old 5 process groups.
  • The 8 performance domains are: Stakeholders, Team, Development Approach and Life Cycle, Planning, Project Work, Delivery, Measurement, Uncertainty.
  • A predictive (waterfall) lifecycle defines scope, schedule and cost upfront and uses formal change control.
  • An adaptive (agile) lifecycle delivers work in short iterations and expects requirements to evolve.
  • A hybrid lifecycle combines predictive and adaptive elements, often predictive planning with agile delivery.
  • Performance domains operate continuously and interact throughout the project — they are not sequential steps.
  • PMI does not prescribe one fixed set of phase names; phases vary by organisation and lifecycle type.
  • Every project lifecycle generally includes: starting the project, organising and preparing, carrying out the work, and closing the project.
  • The Measurement domain covers tracking performance data (e.g. EVM, KPIs) and taking corrective action.
  • The Uncertainty domain covers risk, ambiguity and complexity management across the whole project.
  • Choice of development approach (predictive/adaptive/hybrid) is itself a performance domain decision, made early and revisited as needed.
  • The old 5 process groups (initiating, planning, executing, monitoring & controlling, closing) still exist conceptually but are no longer the primary exam framework.
How many performance domains does the PMP exam (7th edition PMBOK) test?
8 performance domains.
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Name the 8 performance domains.
Stakeholders, Team, Development Approach and Life Cycle, Planning, Project Work, Delivery, Measurement, Uncertainty.
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What replaced the 5 process groups as the primary exam framework?
The 8 performance domains (7th edition), which are continuous and interacting rather than sequential.
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What are the 5 old process groups (still useful background)?
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing.
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What defines a predictive lifecycle?
Scope, schedule and cost are defined upfront; changes go through formal change control.
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What defines an adaptive lifecycle?
Work is delivered in short iterations and requirements are expected to evolve throughout.
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What is a hybrid lifecycle?
A mix of predictive and adaptive approaches, e.g. predictive planning with agile delivery teams.
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Which performance domain covers EVM and KPI tracking?
Measurement.
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Which performance domain covers risk, ambiguity and complexity?
Uncertainty.
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Do performance domains run in a fixed sequence?
No — they operate continuously and interact throughout the project, not one after another.
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What are the 4 generic phases most project lifecycles include?
Starting the project, organising and preparing, carrying out the work, closing the project.
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Does PMI mandate one fixed set of phase names?
No — phase names and structure vary by organisation and by lifecycle type chosen.
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A situational question describes a team failing to engage stakeholders — which domain does this map to?
The Stakeholders performance domain.
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Which domain governs the choice between predictive, adaptive and hybrid delivery?
Development Approach and Life Cycle.
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