← Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) Part 1
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Cardiovascular System

## Cardiovascular System: Key Conditions for PLAB Part 1

The Cardiovascular System is a high-yield topic for PLAB 1, covering common and critical conditions. Understanding their presentation, investigation, and initial management is crucial.

## Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD)

IHD encompasses conditions caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Angina is chest pain due to myocardial ischaemia, typically relieved by rest or nitrates. Stable angina is predictable, while unstable angina is new-onset, worsening, or occurring at rest. Myocardial Infarction (MI) is myocardial cell death due to prolonged ischaemia.

  • Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) includes unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI.
  • Symptoms: Central crushing chest pain, radiating to arm/jaw, dyspnoea, sweating, nausea.
  • Investigations: ECG (ST elevation in STEMI, ST depression/T wave inversion in NSTEMI/unstable angina), Troponin (elevated in MI), full blood count, U&Es, lipids.
  • Management (ACS): Immediate MONA (Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates, Aspirin +/- Clopidogrel). STEMI requires urgent reperfusion (PCI or thrombolysis).

## Heart Failure

Heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet metabolic demands. It can be due to systolic dysfunction (reduced ejection fraction) or diastolic dysfunction (impaired filling).

  • Causes: IHD, hypertension, valvular heart disease, arrhythmias.
  • Symptoms: Progressive dyspnoea (exertional, orthopnoea, PND), fatigue, peripheral oedema.
  • Signs: Elevated JVP, crackles, S3 gallop, pitting oedema, hepatomegaly.
  • Investigations: BNP (elevated), Echocardiogram (confirms diagnosis, assesses ejection fraction and valvular function), CXR (cardiomegaly, pulmonary oedema).
  • Management: Lifestyle modifications, ACE inhibitors, Beta-blockers, Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonists (e.g., Spironolactone) for mortality benefit. Diuretics for symptom control.

## Hypertension

Hypertension is persistently elevated blood pressure, a major risk factor for IHD, stroke, and kidney disease. Diagnosis requires repeated elevated readings, often confirmed with 24-hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring (ABPM).

  • Target BP: Generally <140/90 mmHg (or <135/85 mmHg for home readings).
  • Management: Lifestyle changes (diet, exercise, reduced salt/alcohol). Pharmacological treatment often starts with ACE inhibitors (or ARBs) for under 55s not of black African/Caribbean origin, or Calcium Channel Blockers for others. Diuretics (thiazide-like) are also common first-line or add-on.
  • First-line treatment for essential hypertension in non-black patients under 55 is an ACE inhibitor (or ARB).
  • STEMI is diagnosed by ST-segment elevation in two contiguous leads on an ECG.
  • Troponin is the most sensitive and specific biomarker for myocardial necrosis (MI).
  • ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and MRAs improve mortality in chronic heart failure.
  • Widespread saddle-shaped ST elevation on ECG is characteristic of acute pericarditis.
  • The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess stroke risk in non-valvular atrial fibrillation and guide anticoagulation.
  • The classic triad of aortic stenosis symptoms is chest pain, syncope, and dyspnoea.
  • A CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard investigation for suspected pulmonary embolism.
What are the initial management steps for suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?
MONA: Morphine, Oxygen (if hypoxic), Nitrates, Aspirin (300mg stat) +/- Clopidogrel (300mg stat).
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What ECG finding is characteristic of acute pericarditis?
Widespread saddle-shaped ST elevation and PR depression.
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What is the first-line drug class for chronic stable angina?
Beta-blockers (e.g., Bisoprolol) or Calcium Channel Blockers (e.g., Amlodipine).
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Which investigation is crucial for confirming a diagnosis of heart failure and assessing its severity?
Echocardiogram.
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What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
Left-sided heart failure.
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What is the target blood pressure for most adults with hypertension?
<140/90 mmHg (or <135/85 mmHg for home readings).
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What is the classic murmur of aortic stenosis?
Ejection systolic murmur, crescendo-decrescendo, best heard at the right upper sternal edge, radiating to the carotids.
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What is the diagnostic test of choice for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Lower limb Doppler ultrasound.
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Respiratory System

## Respiratory System Overview

The respiratory system facilitates gas exchange. Key conditions encountered in PLAB Part 1 include obstructive lung diseases (Asthma, COPD), restrictive lung diseases (ILD), infections (Pneumonia, Bronchiectasis), and acute emergencies (Pneumothorax, Pulmonary Embolism).

## Obstructive Lung Diseases

  • Asthma: A chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by reversible airway obstruction, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, and variable respiratory symptoms (wheeze, cough, dyspnoea, chest tightness). Triggers include allergens, exercise, cold air. Management involves short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) for relief and inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) as a preventer. Severe exacerbations may require oral steroids and nebulised bronchodilators.
  • Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD): A progressive, irreversible airway obstruction, primarily caused by smoking. Symptoms include chronic cough, sputum production, and progressive dyspnoea. Diagnosis is confirmed by spirometry showing FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7 post-bronchodilator. Management focuses on smoking cessation, bronchodilators (LABA, LAMA), inhaled corticosteroids (in some cases), and oxygen therapy for severe hypoxaemia.

## Acute Respiratory Conditions

  • Pneumonia: An acute infection of the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include cough, fever, dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain. Diagnosis by chest X-ray (CXR) showing consolidation. Management is with antibiotics, guided by severity (e.g., CURB-65 score).
  • Pneumothorax: Air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse. Can be spontaneous (primary or secondary) or traumatic. Symptoms include sudden onset pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea. Diagnosis by CXR. Small pneumothoraces may be observed; larger ones or symptomatic cases require aspiration or chest drain insertion. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency requiring immediate needle decompression.
  • Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Blockage of pulmonary arteries, usually by a thrombus from the deep veins (DVT). Risk factors include immobility, surgery, malignancy, OCP. Symptoms vary but include sudden dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, syncope. Diagnosis often involves D-dimer (if low probability) and CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA). Management is with anticoagulation.

## Other Important Conditions

  • Pleural Effusion: Abnormal fluid accumulation in the pleural space. Causes can be transudative (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis) or exudative (e.g., pneumonia, malignancy, PE). Presents with dyspnoea and pleuritic pain. Diagnosis by CXR, ultrasound, and pleural fluid aspiration.
  • Lung Cancer: Often presents late with persistent cough, haemoptysis, weight loss, chest pain, or dyspnoea. Smoking is the primary risk factor. Investigations include CXR, CT chest, and biopsy for histological diagnosis.
  • Asthma is characterised by reversible airway obstruction and managed with SABA and ICS.
  • COPD involves irreversible airway obstruction, primarily due to smoking, diagnosed by spirometry (FEV1/FVC < 0.7).
  • Pneumonia is lung parenchyma infection, diagnosed by CXR, and treated with antibiotics.
  • Pneumothorax is air in the pleural space, causing sudden pain and dyspnoea, managed by aspiration or chest drain.
  • Pulmonary Embolism presents with sudden dyspnoea/chest pain, diagnosed by CTPA, and treated with anticoagulation.
  • Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate needle decompression.
  • Pleural effusions can be transudative (e.g., heart failure) or exudative (e.g., infection, malignancy).
  • Smoking is the leading cause of COPD and lung cancer.
What spirometry finding confirms a diagnosis of COPD?
FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7 post-bronchodilator.
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What is the initial management for a stable patient with a small primary spontaneous pneumothorax?
Observation and oxygen, with follow-up CXR.
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Name two common causes of a transudative pleural effusion.
Heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome.
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What is the definitive diagnostic investigation for suspected pulmonary embolism?
CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA).
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A patient with asthma presents with acute severe wheezing, unable to complete sentences. What immediate medication should be given?
High-dose inhaled short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., salbutamol) via a spacer or nebuliser, along with oxygen. Oral corticosteroids may also be initiated.
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What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis in the UK without an underlying genetic condition?
Post-infectious (e.g., severe childhood pneumonia, pertussis, measles).
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What is the immediate life-saving intervention for a tension pneumothorax?
Immediate needle decompression (large bore cannula into the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line), followed by chest drain insertion.
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Which type of lung cancer is strongly associated with paraneoplastic syndromes like SIADH or Cushing's syndrome?
Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC).
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Gastrointestinal System

## Gastrointestinal System: Key Concepts & Conditions

The gastrointestinal (GI) system is a common focus in PLAB 1, covering a wide range of conditions from common dyspepsia to acute abdomen. Understanding key symptoms, investigations, and management is crucial for diagnosis and patient care.

Common Symptoms & Red Flags

Dyspepsia (indigestion) is a frequent complaint. Red flags that necessitate urgent investigation include: unexplained weight loss, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), odynophagia (painful swallowing), persistent vomiting, GI bleeding (haematemesis, melaena, PR bleeding), anaemia, and an abdominal mass. These symptoms often warrant an urgent endoscopy (upper GI or colonoscopy).

Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)

Caused by reflux of stomach acid into the oesophagus. Common symptoms are heartburn, acid regurgitation, and sometimes dysphagia. Management typically involves lifestyle modifications (e.g., weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, elevating head of bed) and pharmacological agents, primarily Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole or lansoprazole.

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)

Ulcers in the stomach or duodenum, frequently caused by _Helicobacter pylori_ (H. pylori) infection or NSAID use. Symptoms include epigastric pain, dyspepsia, and sometimes GI bleeding. H. pylori is diagnosed via urea breath test, stool antigen test, or biopsy during endoscopy. Treatment for H. pylori involves eradication therapy (a PPI plus two antibiotics for 7-14 days), or stopping NSAIDs and prescribing PPIs for NSAID-induced ulcers.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

Comprises Crohn's Disease and Ulcerative Colitis (UC). Both are chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory conditions of the GI tract.

  • Crohn's: Can affect any part of the GI tract from mouth to anus, with transmural inflammation, skip lesions, and granulomas. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, weight loss, and perianal disease.
  • UC: Affects only the colon and rectum, with mucosal inflammation and a continuous pattern. Symptoms typically include bloody diarrhoea and tenesmus.

Diagnosis for both is primarily via colonoscopy with biopsy. Management involves aminosalicylates, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and biologics.

Coeliac Disease

An autoimmune condition triggered by gluten ingestion in genetically predisposed individuals, leading to small bowel villous atrophy. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, bloating, abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, and anaemia. Diagnosis involves screening with anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibodies and confirmation with an endoscopic small bowel biopsy showing villous atrophy. Management is a lifelong, strict gluten-free diet.

Acute Pancreatitis

Acute inflammation of the pancreas, most commonly caused by gallstones or alcohol abuse. Symptoms include severe, sudden onset epigastric pain often radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, elevated serum amylase or lipase (at least three times the upper limit of normal), and imaging (e.g., CT abdomen). Management is supportive, involving aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, analgesia, and nil by mouth.

  • **Red flags for dyspepsia** (weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding) warrant urgent upper GI endoscopy to rule out malignancy.
  • **_Helicobacter pylori_** is a major cause of peptic ulcer disease and is treated with triple therapy (PPI + two antibiotics).
  • **Crohn's disease** can affect any part of the GI tract transmurally, while **Ulcerative Colitis** affects the colon and rectum mucosally.
  • **Coeliac disease** is diagnosed by positive anti-TTG antibodies and confirmed by small bowel biopsy showing villous atrophy.
  • **Acute pancreatitis** is most commonly caused by gallstones or alcohol, presenting with severe epigastric pain and elevated amylase/lipase.
  • **GORD** is primarily managed with lifestyle modifications and Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs).
  • **Faecal calprotectin** is a useful non-invasive marker to differentiate inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
  • **Jaundice** in an adult requires urgent investigation, often starting with LFTs and abdominal ultrasound, to rule out obstruction or hepatocellular damage.
  • **Appendicitis** classically presents with peri-umbilical pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, with tenderness at McBurney's point.
What are the key red flag symptoms in a patient presenting with dyspepsia?
Unexplained weight loss, dysphagia, odynophagia, persistent vomiting, GI bleeding, anaemia, abdominal mass.
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What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease not related to NSAID use?
_Helicobacter pylori_ infection.
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How is _Helicobacter pylori_ infection typically diagnosed non-invasively?
Urea breath test or stool antigen test.
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What is the key histological difference between Crohn's disease and Ulcerative Colitis?
Crohn's has transmural inflammation and granulomas; UC has mucosal inflammation and no granulomas.
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What initial blood test is highly suggestive of Coeliac Disease?
Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibodies.
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What are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones and alcohol.
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A patient presents with sudden onset severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, with nausea and vomiting. What enzyme level would you check to confirm your suspected diagnosis?
Serum amylase or lipase (elevated >3x upper limit of normal for acute pancreatitis).
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What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for symptomatic GORD?
Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs), e.g., omeprazole, lansoprazole.
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Neurology

## Neurology Revision for PLAB Part 1

Neurology is a high-yield topic covering conditions affecting the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Understanding common presentations and initial management is crucial.

## Headaches

Migraine: Characterised by unilateral, throbbing pain, often with aura (visual disturbances), nausea, vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. Acute treatment includes NSAIDs, triptans (e.g., sumatriptan). Prophylaxis for frequent attacks (e.g., beta-blockers, topiramate).

Tension Headache: Bilateral, pressing/tightening, mild-moderate intensity, no associated features. Managed with simple analgesics.

Cluster Headache: Severe, unilateral periorbital pain, associated with ipsilateral autonomic features (e.g., lacrimation, ptosis, rhinorrhoea). Acute treatment: 100% oxygen, subcutaneous triptans.

Red Flags: Always consider secondary causes for new, severe, or atypical headaches. Look for thunderclap headache, new onset >50 years, focal neurological deficits, papilloedema, fever, neck stiffness, or headache worsening with Valsalva.

## Stroke and Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

Stroke: Acute neurological deficit due to cerebrovascular disease. Ischaemic stroke (85%) due to arterial occlusion; haemorrhagic stroke (15%) due to bleeding. Symptoms depend on the affected area (e.g., facial droop, arm weakness, speech disturbance - FAST).

Acute Management: Immediate CT head to rule out haemorrhage. If ischaemic and within 4.5 hours of symptom onset (and no contraindications), thrombolysis (alteplase) may be considered. Aspirin 300mg is given within 24 hours (if no haemorrhage and not thrombolysed).

TIA: Transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours (usually minutes). High risk of subsequent stroke; requires urgent investigation (e.g., carotid Doppler, ECG, MRI brain) and antiplatelet therapy (e.g., aspirin + clopidogrel for 21 days, then clopidogrel monotherapy).

## Seizures and Epilepsy

Epilepsy: Recurrent unprovoked seizures.

Generalized Seizures: Affect both hemispheres. Tonic-clonic involves tonic (stiffening) and clonic (jerking) phases, often with a post-ictal state (confusion, drowsiness). Absence seizures are brief lapses of consciousness.

Focal Seizures: Originate in one hemisphere, can be with or without impaired awareness. Symptoms vary based on location.

Status Epilepticus: Seizure lasting >5 minutes or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness between them. A medical emergency. Initial management: ABCDE, IV lorazepam (or buccal midazolam) followed by IV phenytoin or levetiracetam.

## Parkinson's Disease

A progressive neurodegenerative disorder due to dopamine deficiency in the substantia nigra.

Classic Triad: Bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity (cogwheel or lead-pipe), and resting tremor (pill-rolling). Other features include postural instability, masked facies, shuffling gait. Management involves dopamine agonists (e.g., ropinirole) or levodopa.

## Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

A chronic inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. Characterised by episodes of neurological dysfunction (relapses) followed by recovery (remissions).

Common Symptoms: Visual disturbances (e.g., optic neuritis - painful unilateral vision loss), sensory symptoms (numbness, tingling), motor weakness, ataxia, fatigue, bladder dysfunction. Diagnosis involves MRI brain/spinal cord showing demyelinating plaques and CSF analysis (oligoclonal bands). Acute relapses treated with high-dose corticosteroids.

  • Migraine prophylaxis is considered for >4 attacks per month, with beta-blockers or topiramate as first-line.
  • All acute stroke patients require an urgent CT head to differentiate ischaemic from haemorrhagic stroke before treatment.
  • Status epilepticus is a medical emergency defined as a seizure >5 minutes or recurrent seizures without recovery, treated acutely with benzodiazepines.
  • The classic triad of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor.
  • Optic neuritis (painful unilateral vision loss) is a common presenting symptom of Multiple Sclerosis.
  • Meningitis red flags include fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, non-blanching rash, and altered mental status.
  • Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder causing fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest.
  • TIA patients require urgent assessment (ABCD2 score) and usually dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel) for 21 days.
What is the acute first-line treatment for a moderate-to-severe migraine attack?
Oral triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) combined with NSAIDs or paracetamol.
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What is the time window for considering IV thrombolysis in an an acute ischaemic stroke?
Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, if no contraindications.
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How is status epilepticus defined?
A seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes, or recurrent seizures without recovery of consciousness between them.
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What are the three cardinal motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
Bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor.
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What is a common visual symptom of Multiple Sclerosis, characterised by painful unilateral vision loss?
Optic neuritis.
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What is the initial pharmacological management for status epilepticus?
IV lorazepam (or buccal midazolam) as first-line.
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What are the key features of a cluster headache?
Severe, unilateral periorbital pain, short duration (15-180 mins), with ipsilateral autonomic features (e.g., lacrimation, ptosis, rhinorrhoea).
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What is the definitive diagnostic test for Myasthenia Gravis?
Acetylcholine receptor antibody test.
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Endocrinology

## Diabetes Mellitus

Diabetes Mellitus (DM) is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by elevated blood glucose levels. Type 1 DM results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. It typically presents in childhood or adolescence with acute symptoms like polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss. Type 2 DM is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency, often associated with obesity and a strong genetic predisposition, typically presenting in adulthood.

Diagnosis of DM is based on:

  • HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol (6.5%)
  • Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/L
  • Random plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (with symptoms)
  • Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) 2-hour plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L

Acute complications include Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) (Type 1, characterized by hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia, metabolic acidosis) and Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS) (Type 2, characterized by severe hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity, dehydration, without significant ketosis). Chronic complications affect microvascular (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy) and macrovascular (CAD, stroke, PVD) systems.

## Thyroid Disorders

Hyperthyroidism (e.g., Graves' disease) presents with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, tremor, anxiety, and sometimes exophthalmos and pretibial myxoedema. Diagnosis involves low TSH and high free T4/T3. Treatment includes anti-thyroid drugs (carbimazole, propylthiouracil), radioiodine, or surgery.

Hypothyroidism (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis) presents with weight gain, fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, and dry skin. Diagnosis involves high TSH and low free T4. Treatment is lifelong levothyroxine replacement.

## Adrenal Gland Disorders

Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) results from adrenal cortex destruction, leading to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency. Features include fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia. Diagnosis involves short synacthen test. Treatment is steroid replacement.

Cushing's syndrome results from prolonged exposure to high cortisol levels. Features include central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, and proximal myopathy. Diagnosis involves dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol.

Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia due to excessive aldosterone production, often by an adrenal adenoma. Diagnosis involves aldosterone-to-renin ratio.

## Calcium Metabolism

Primary Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to hypercalcaemia. Symptoms are often vague but can include 'stones, bones, abdominal groans, and psychiatric overtones'.

  • DKA is characterized by hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia, and metabolic acidosis, primarily affecting Type 1 DM.
  • HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is a diagnostic criterion for Diabetes Mellitus.
  • Graves' disease is an autoimmune cause of hyperthyroidism, often presenting with exophthalmos and pretibial myxoedema.
  • Addison's disease classically presents with hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
  • Primary hyperparathyroidism leads to hypercalcaemia and can cause 'stones, bones, abdominal groans, and psychiatric overtones'.
  • Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is a common cause of hypertension with hypokalaemia.
  • Hypothyroidism is treated with lifelong daily levothyroxine replacement.
  • Cushing's syndrome is characterized by central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae due to excess cortisol.
What HbA1c level is diagnostic for Diabetes Mellitus?
HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol (6.5%).
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Name three classic symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
Weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, tremor, anxiety (any three).
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What is the first-line treatment for hypothyroidism?
Lifelong levothyroxine replacement.
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What are the key electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease?
Hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.
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What is the classic triad of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia, and metabolic acidosis.
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What are the common clinical features associated with Cushing's syndrome?
Central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, hypertension, hyperglycaemia.
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Which endocrine condition is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia?
Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism).
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What are the 'four P's' often associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Stones (renal calculi), bones (bone pain/osteoporosis), abdominal groans (abdominal pain), and psychiatric overtones (depression, fatigue).
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Obstetrics & Gynaecology

## Obstetrics & Gynaecology Revision

Pre-eclampsia

A multi-system disorder unique to pregnancy, characterised by new-onset hypertension (BP ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions, 4 hours apart) and proteinuria (≥0.3g/24h) after 20 weeks gestation. Can also present with end-organ dysfunction (e.g., headache, visual disturbance, epigastric pain, abnormal LFTs/platelets) without proteinuria.

  • Risk factors: Nulliparity, previous pre-eclampsia, chronic hypertension, diabetes, multiple pregnancy, renal disease, autoimmune conditions.
  • Management: Close monitoring, anti-hypertensives (e.g., labetalol, nifedipine), magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis in severe cases, and definitive treatment is delivery of the baby and placenta.

Postpartum Haemorrhage (PPH)

Defined as blood loss of ≥500ml within 24 hours of birth (primary PPH) or ≥1000ml for severe PPH. Secondary PPH occurs 24 hours to 12 weeks postpartum.

  • Causes (4 Ts): Tone (uterine atony - most common), Trauma (vaginal/cervical tears), Tissue (retained placental tissue), Thrombin (coagulopathy).
  • Management: ABCDE approach, call for help, bimanual uterine compression, IV fluids, uterotonics (e.g., oxytocin, carboprost, misoprostol), identify and treat cause.

Ectopic Pregnancy

Implantation of a fertilised ovum outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the fallopian tube. A medical emergency.

  • Symptoms: Amenorrhoea, abdominal pain (often unilateral), and vaginal bleeding. May present with shoulder tip pain (diaphragmatic irritation from haemoperitoneum) or collapse.
  • Diagnosis: Positive pregnancy test, transvaginal ultrasound showing empty uterus and adnexal mass/fluid, serial hCG levels (rise slower than expected).
  • Management: Expectant (if stable, low hCG), medical (methotrexate), or surgical (laparoscopic salpingectomy/salpingostomy).

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

A common endocrine disorder characterised by a combination of:

  • Oligo/anovulation (irregular or absent periods)
  • Clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne, alopecia, elevated testosterone)
  • Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (12 or more follicles 2-9mm in one ovary, or ovarian volume >10ml).
  • Diagnosis: Requires 2 out of 3 Rotterdam criteria.
  • Management: Lifestyle modification (diet, exercise), COCP for menstrual regulation and hirsutism, anti-androgens, metformin for insulin resistance, clomiphene/letrozole for fertility.

Endometriosis

Presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, causing a chronic inflammatory reaction.

  • Symptoms: Chronic pelvic pain (cyclical, often worsening during menstruation), dysmenorrhoea (severe period pain), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), dyschezia (painful bowel movements), infertility.
  • Diagnosis: Clinical suspicion, imaging (ultrasound, MRI) may show endometriomas, but laparoscopy with biopsy is the gold standard.
  • Management: Pain relief (NSAIDs), hormonal therapies (COCP, progestogens, GnRH analogues), surgical excision of lesions.
  • The **4 Ts** of PPH are Tone, Trauma, Tissue, and Thrombin.
  • **Magnesium sulfate** is the first-line treatment for eclampsia and seizure prophylaxis in severe pre-eclampsia.
  • **Laparoscopy with biopsy** is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis.
  • The definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia is **delivery of the baby and placenta**.
  • **Methotrexate** is a medical option for managing stable ectopic pregnancies.
  • **Rotterdam criteria** (2 out of 3) are used to diagnose PCOS: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
  • **Oxytocin** is the first-line uterotonic agent for preventing and treating uterine atony causing PPH.
  • **Shoulder tip pain** in early pregnancy can indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to diaphragmatic irritation.
What is the definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia?
Delivery of the baby and placenta.
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What are the "4 Ts" that cause postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?
Tone (uterine atony), Trauma (genital tract lacerations), Tissue (retained placental tissue), Thrombin (coagulopathy).
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What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for endometriosis?
Laparoscopy with biopsy.
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A pregnant woman at 30 weeks presents with new-onset hypertension (BP 150/100 mmHg) and proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pre-eclampsia.
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What is the first-line medical management for a stable ectopic pregnancy?
Methotrexate.
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Name two common symptoms of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).
Irregular periods (oligo/anovulation), hirsutism, acne, infertility.
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What medication is given for seizure prophylaxis in severe pre-eclampsia/eclampsia?
Magnesium sulfate.
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What is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage?
Uterine atony (lack of uterine tone).
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Paediatrics

## Neonatal Jaundice

Neonatal jaundice is common, affecting ~60% of term babies. It's caused by increased bilirubin levels.

  • Physiological jaundice: Appears >24 hours of age, peaks at 3-5 days, resolves by 14 days (term) or 21 days (preterm). Usually unconjugated.
  • Pathological jaundice: Appears <24 hours of age, rapidly rising bilirubin, prolonged jaundice (>14/21 days), or associated with other symptoms. Causes include haemolysis (e.g., ABO incompatibility, G6PD deficiency), infection, biliary atresia (conjugated hyperbilirubinemia).
  • Management: Monitor bilirubin levels. Phototherapy is the primary treatment for significant unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, converting bilirubin into water-soluble isomers. Exchange transfusion for severe, rapidly rising levels or signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy.

## Respiratory Conditions

  • Bronchiolitis: Viral infection (RSV most common) of lower airways, typically in infants <2 years. Presents with coryzal symptoms followed by cough, tachypnoea, subcostal/intercostal recession, and wheeze/crackles. Management is supportive (hydration, oxygen if sats <92%). No routine bronchodilators or steroids.
  • Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis): Viral infection causing inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi. Characterised by a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness. Worse at night. Management: single dose of oral dexamethasone, humidified air.

## Child Protection

  • Recognising and responding to signs of child abuse or neglect is crucial.
  • Indicators: Unexplained injuries (bruises, fractures, burns), inconsistent history, delayed presentation, poor hygiene, developmental delay due to neglect, behavioural changes.
  • Action: Always consider child abuse in suspicious circumstances. Document observations accurately. If there are immediate safety concerns, contact social services or police. Discuss concerns with a senior paediatrician or safeguarding lead.

## Growth and Development

  • Growth charts: Used to monitor weight, height, and head circumference. Failure to thrive (FTT) is inadequate weight gain or weight loss, often crossing two major centile lines downwards. Causes can be organic (e.g., malabsorption, cardiac disease) or non-organic (e.g., inadequate feeding, neglect).
  • Developmental milestones: Assess gross motor, fine motor, speech & language, and social & emotional domains. Delays warrant investigation (e.g., hearing screen, genetic testing).

## Immunisations

  • Routine childhood immunisations are vital for preventing infectious diseases. Follow the UK immunisation schedule.
  • Contraindications are rare: confirmed anaphylaxis to a previous dose or vaccine component. Minor illnesses (e.g., common cold) are NOT contraindications.
  • Physiological neonatal jaundice appears >24 hours of age, peaks 3-5 days, and resolves by 14 days (term).
  • Pathological jaundice appears <24 hours, shows a rapid rise, or is prolonged (>14 days term).
  • Bronchiolitis is a viral lower airway infection in infants, primarily managed supportively with oxygen if sats <92%.
  • Croup presents with a characteristic 'barking' cough and inspiratory stridor, treated with a single dose of oral dexamethasone.
  • Always consider child abuse in unexplained injuries or inconsistent histories and escalate concerns to safeguarding leads.
  • Failure to thrive is inadequate weight gain, often indicated by crossing two major centile lines downwards on a growth chart.
  • The main contraindication to routine childhood immunisations is confirmed anaphylaxis to a previous dose or vaccine component.
What is the typical onset and resolution of physiological neonatal jaundice in term infants?
Onset >24 hours, peaks 3-5 days, resolves by 14 days.
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What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV).
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What is the characteristic cough associated with Croup?
A 'barking' cough.
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What is the primary management for Croup?
A single dose of oral dexamethasone.
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When should pathological jaundice be suspected in a neonate?
Onset <24 hours of age, rapid rise in bilirubin, prolonged jaundice (>14 days term), or associated with other symptoms.
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What is a key indicator of 'failure to thrive' on a growth chart?
Inadequate weight gain, often crossing two major centile lines downwards.
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What is the main contraindication to routine childhood immunisations?
Confirmed anaphylaxis to a previous dose or vaccine component.
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What is the initial management for significant unconjugated neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?
Phototherapy.
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Psychiatry

## Psychiatric Assessment Fundamentals

A thorough psychiatric assessment includes history taking (presenting complaint, history of present illness, past psychiatric history, past medical history, drug history, family history, personal history including social and developmental aspects), and a mental state examination (MSE). The MSE covers appearance, behaviour, speech, mood, affect, thought form, thought content (delusions, obsessions, suicidal ideation), perception (hallucinations), cognition (orientation, memory, attention), and insight. Risk assessment for self-harm, suicide, and harm to others is paramount.

## Common Psychiatric Disorders

Depression

Characterised by low mood, anhedonia (loss of pleasure), and fatigue for at least two weeks, along with other symptoms like changes in appetite/sleep, psychomotor agitation/retardation, poor concentration, feelings of worthlessness/guilt, and suicidal thoughts. Management often involves antidepressants (SSRIs first-line) and psychological therapies (CBT).

Anxiety Disorders

Includes Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) (excessive worry for >6 months), Panic Disorder (recurrent unexpected panic attacks), Social Anxiety Disorder, and Phobias. Symptoms include physical (palpitations, sweating, tremor) and psychological (apprehension, irritability). Treatment involves CBT and SSRIs.

Psychotic Disorders (e.g., Schizophrenia)

Defined by a distortion of reality, featuring positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder) and negative symptoms (alogia, avolition, anhedonia, affective flattening). Diagnosis requires symptoms for >1 month. Antipsychotics are the mainstay of treatment, often with significant side effects (e.g., extrapyramidal symptoms - EPS, metabolic syndrome).

Bipolar Disorder

Characterised by episodes of both mania/hypomania and depression. Mania involves elevated mood, increased energy, reduced need for sleep, grandiosity, racing thoughts, and risky behaviour. Treatment includes mood stabilisers (lithium, valproate, lamotrigine) and antipsychotics.

## Delirium vs. Dementia

Delirium is an acute, fluctuating disturbance of attention and cognition, often caused by an underlying medical condition (e.g., infection, drugs). It is a medical emergency. Dementia is a chronic, progressive decline in cognitive function, not due to delirium or other psychiatric disorders. Common types include Alzheimer's and Vascular Dementia.

  • SSRIs are first-line for depression and most anxiety disorders.
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are common side effects of typical antipsychotics, including acute dystonia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism.
  • Lithium requires regular blood monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic window and risk of toxicity.
  • Delirium is an acute, fluctuating medical emergency, whereas dementia is a chronic, progressive cognitive decline.
  • A key feature distinguishing mania from hypomania is the presence of significant functional impairment or psychosis in mania.
  • Risk assessment for suicide, self-harm, and harm to others is a critical component of every psychiatric assessment.
  • Anhedonia, the inability to experience pleasure, is a core symptom of depression.
  • The Mental State Examination (MSE) is a structured assessment of a patient's current psychological functioning.
Core symptoms of depression for diagnosis.
Low mood, anhedonia, fatigue (at least two for >2 weeks).
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First-line pharmacological treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
SSRIs (e.g., escitalopram, sertraline).
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What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
Hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder.
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Common side effects of typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol).
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS): acute dystonia, akathisia, Parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia.
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What is the key difference between delirium and dementia?
Delirium is acute, fluctuating, and often reversible, while dementia is chronic, progressive, and generally irreversible.
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What is the primary concern when prescribing lithium?
Narrow therapeutic window requiring regular blood level monitoring to prevent toxicity.
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Definition of anhedonia.
Loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
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What is the most important immediate action when a patient expresses suicidal ideation?
Perform a thorough risk assessment and implement safety measures.
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