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General security concepts

What 'General security concepts' covers

This is the foundation domain of Security+ (SY0-701). It covers security controls, the CIA triad, AAA, cryptographic basics, and change management. It is roughly 12% of the exam, but the ideas underpin every other domain, so learn it properly.

Categories and types of controls

Controls are described two ways: category (how it works) and type (what it does).

  • Categories: technical (firewalls, encryption), managerial (policies, risk assessments), operational (awareness training, guards), physical (locks, fencing, CCTV).
  • Types: preventive (stops an incident, eg MFA), deterrent (discourages, eg warning signs), detective (finds it, eg IDS, logs), corrective (fixes it, eg backups, patching), compensating (an alternative when the main control is not possible), directive (tells people what to do, eg policy).
  • Common mistake: mixing up deterrent and preventive. A sign is deterrent; a locked door is preventive.

CIA triad and related concepts

  • Confidentiality: only authorised people see the data (encryption, access control).
  • Integrity: data has not been altered (hashing, digital signatures).
  • Availability: systems are up when needed (redundancy, backups, DR).
  • Non-repudiation: proof someone did an action, so they cannot deny it (digital signatures).
  • AAA framework: Authentication (who you are), Authorization (what you can do), Accounting (logging what happened).

Cryptographic basics

  • Symmetric encryption: one shared key, fast, used for bulk data (AES).
  • Asymmetric encryption: public/private key pair, used for key exchange and signatures (RSA, ECC).
  • Hashing is one-way and used for integrity, not confidentiality — never say 'encrypt with a hash'.
  • Digital signature = hash of the message encrypted with the sender's private key; verifies both integrity and authenticity.
  • PKI issues and manages certificates via a Certificate Authority (CA); a certificate binds a public key to an identity.

Zero Trust

'Never trust, always verify.' Every request is authenticated and authorised regardless of network location. Two planes: the control plane (policy engine, policy administrator) decides; the data plane (policy enforcement point) enforces. No implicit trust just because a device is inside the corporate network.

Change management

Changes to systems must go through a formal process: request, impact analysis, approval (Change Advisory Board), testing, implementation, and a documented backout plan. Common mistake: skipping the backout plan — always have a way to reverse a change that goes wrong.

Common exam traps

  • Gap analysis compares current state to desired state, not a type of control.
  • 'Least privilege' and 'need to know' sound similar but least privilege is about permission level, need to know is about data access relevance.
  • Encryption protects confidentiality; hashing protects integrity; they are not interchangeable answers.
  • The CIA triad is Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability — the three goals every control maps back to.
  • AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization, Accounting — three separate, sequential steps.
  • Symmetric encryption (eg AES) uses one shared key; asymmetric encryption (eg RSA, ECC) uses a public/private key pair.
  • Hashing is one-way and proves integrity — it is never used to prove confidentiality.
  • A digital signature is a hash encrypted with the sender's private key, giving both integrity and non-repudiation.
  • Control types are preventive, deterrent, detective, corrective, compensating, and directive.
  • Control categories are technical, managerial, operational, and physical.
  • Zero Trust operates on 'never trust, always verify' with no implicit trust based on network location.
  • Zero Trust splits into the control plane (policy decision) and the data plane (policy enforcement).
  • A Certificate Authority (CA) issues and signs digital certificates as part of PKI.
  • Change management always requires a documented backout plan before implementation.
  • Non-repudiation means a person cannot deny having performed an action, usually proven via digital signature.
What are the three parts of the CIA triad?
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
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What does AAA stand for in security?
Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
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What is the key difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
Symmetric uses one shared key (fast, bulk data); asymmetric uses a public/private key pair (key exchange, signatures)
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Can hashing be used to keep data confidential?
No — hashing is one-way and proves integrity only, not confidentiality
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What makes up a digital signature?
A hash of the message encrypted with the sender's private key
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What does a digital signature prove?
Integrity and non-repudiation (and authenticity of the sender)
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Name the six control types.
Preventive, deterrent, detective, corrective, compensating, directive
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Name the four control categories.
Technical, managerial, operational, physical
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Give an example of a deterrent control.
A warning sign or visible CCTV camera — it discourages but does not physically stop an incident
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What is the guiding principle of Zero Trust?
Never trust, always verify — no implicit trust based on network location
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What are the two planes in a Zero Trust architecture?
The control plane (policy decision) and the data plane (policy enforcement)
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What does a Certificate Authority (CA) do?
Issues and signs digital certificates, binding a public key to an identity, as part of PKI
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Why must every change request include a backout plan?
So the change can be reversed if it causes an unexpected problem in production
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What is the difference between least privilege and need to know?
Least privilege limits permission level; need to know limits access to data relevant to the task
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What body typically approves changes in a formal change management process?
The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
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Threats, vulnerabilities & mitigations

Threats, vulnerabilities and mitigations

This domain covers threat actors, attack types, vulnerabilities and how to reduce risk. It is one of the heaviest-weighted areas in Security+ SY0-701, so know it cold.

Threat actor types

  • Nation-state: highest resources and sophistication, often APT (advanced persistent threat) level, motivated by espionage/disruption.
  • Organised crime: financially motivated, uses ransomware and fraud.
  • Hacktivist: ideologically motivated, favours defacement and DDoS.
  • Insider threat: has legitimate access already, hardest to detect by perimeter tools.
  • Unskilled attacker (formerly 'script kiddie'): low skill, uses off-the-shelf tools.
  • Shadow IT: not malicious but creates unmanaged, unpatched attack surface.

Common attack vectors

  • Phishing, vishing (voice), smishing (SMS) and pretexting are all social engineering.
  • Business email compromise (BEC) targets finance staff using spoofed executive emails.
  • Watering hole attacks compromise a site the victims already trust and visit.
  • Supply chain attacks compromise a trusted vendor or update mechanism to reach many victims at once.

Malware and vulnerability types

  • Ransomware encrypts data and demands payment; know the difference from a wiper, which destroys data with no recovery intent.
  • Zero-day: a vulnerability exploited before a patch exists — no CVE fix available yet.
  • Buffer overflow, SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS) remain classic application-layer weaknesses; injection flaws stem from unvalidated input.
  • Race conditions (e.g. time-of-check to time-of-use, TOCTOU) exploit timing gaps in code logic.

Mitigation techniques

  • Segmentation isolates critical systems on separate network zones to limit lateral movement.
  • Least privilege gives users/accounts only the access they need, nothing more.
  • Patch management closes known vulnerabilities — the number one defence against non-zero-day exploits.
  • Hardening: disabling unused services/ports, changing default credentials, applying secure baselines.
  • Compensating controls are used when the primary control cannot be applied (e.g. legacy systems that cannot be patched).

Common mistakes

  • Confusing a vulnerability (a weakness) with a threat (the actor/event that could exploit it) with risk (the likelihood x impact).
  • Assuming patching alone stops zero-days — it cannot, since no patch exists yet; mitigating controls (segmentation, monitoring) are needed instead.
  • Mixing up vishing/smishing/phishing — the exam tests you know which channel each uses.
  • A zero-day is a vulnerability being actively exploited before any vendor patch exists.
  • Vulnerability = weakness, threat = potential exploiter/event, risk = likelihood multiplied by impact.
  • Vishing uses voice calls, smishing uses SMS, phishing uses email — all are social engineering.
  • APT (advanced persistent threat) actors are typically nation-state sponsored with long-term stealthy access.
  • Ransomware encrypts data for payment; a wiper destroys data with no intent to restore it.
  • Business email compromise (BEC) spoofs a trusted executive to trick finance staff into a fraudulent transfer.
  • A watering hole attack compromises a site the target group already trusts and visits.
  • Supply chain attacks compromise a vendor or update mechanism to reach many downstream victims.
  • TOCTOU (time-of-check to time-of-use) is a race condition exploiting a timing gap in code.
  • Least privilege means granting only the minimum access required to perform a role, nothing more.
  • Compensating controls are applied when the primary security control cannot be implemented, e.g. on legacy systems.
  • Segmentation limits lateral movement by isolating critical systems into separate network zones.
What is a zero-day vulnerability?
A vulnerability being exploited before a vendor patch exists.
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Define vulnerability, threat and risk.
Vulnerability = weakness; threat = potential exploiter/event; risk = likelihood x impact.
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What channel does vishing use?
Voice calls (phone-based social engineering).
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What channel does smishing use?
SMS text messages.
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What is an APT?
Advanced persistent threat — typically nation-state, stealthy, long-term access.
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Difference between ransomware and a wiper?
Ransomware encrypts data for payment; a wiper destroys data with no intent to restore.
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What is business email compromise (BEC)?
Spoofing a trusted executive's email to trick staff, usually finance, into fraudulent action such as a wire transfer.
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What is a watering hole attack?
Compromising a website the target group already trusts and visits, to infect them indirectly.
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What is a supply chain attack?
Compromising a trusted vendor or update mechanism to reach many downstream victims at once.
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What is TOCTOU?
Time-of-check to time-of-use — a race condition exploiting the timing gap between checking and using a resource.
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What does the principle of least privilege mean?
Granting users or accounts only the access needed to do their job, nothing more.
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When are compensating controls used?
When the primary security control cannot be applied, e.g. on unpatchable legacy systems.
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What is an insider threat and why is it hard to detect?
Someone with legitimate access who misuses it; hard to detect because perimeter tools assume trusted access is safe.
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What is shadow IT and why is it risky?
Unmanaged/unauthorised IT systems used without approval, creating unpatched, invisible attack surface.
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What replaced the term 'script kiddie' in current CompTIA terminology?
Unskilled attacker.
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Security architecture

What security architecture covers

Security architecture is about designing IT environments so that security is built in, not bolted on. Security+ tests your grasp of models, network design patterns, and infrastructure concepts that reduce risk by design.

Zero Trust

Zero Trust assumes no user or device is trusted by default, inside or outside the network perimeter - 'never trust, always verify'. Two core planes: the control plane (policy engine, policy administrator - decides who gets access) and the data plane (policy enforcement point - actually blocks or allows traffic). Verification happens continuously, not just at login. Common mistake: candidates think Zero Trust means 'no VPN' - it actually means every request is authenticated and authorised regardless of location.

Network infrastructure concepts

  • Physical isolation: air-gapped systems have no network connection at all - highest security, used for critical control systems.
  • Logical segmentation: VLANs split one physical network into separate broadcast domains without new cabling.
  • Screened subnet (formerly called DMZ): a buffer zone between the internet and the internal LAN, holding public-facing servers (web, mail) so a breach there doesn't reach the internal network directly.
  • Extranet: a controlled-access network segment shared with trusted external partners.
  • Intranet: the private internal network, not reachable from outside.

Deployment and infrastructure models

  • On-premises vs cloud vs hybrid: cloud shifts responsibility per the shared responsibility model - the provider secures the cloud, the customer secures what's IN the cloud (data, access, configuration).
  • IaaS, PaaS, SaaS: the customer's security duties shrink as you move from IaaS towards SaaS, but data protection remains the customer's job in all three.
  • Microservices and containerisation (e.g. Docker) isolate application components, but each container image must be scanned and patched.
  • Serverless computing removes server management but expands the attack surface at the API/function level.

Resilience and site considerations

  • High availability aims for near-continuous uptime (often quoted as 'five nines' = 99.999%).
  • Site types: hot site (fully operational, fastest failover, most expensive), warm site (partially equipped, some setup needed), cold site (basic facility only, cheapest, slowest to activate).
  • Load balancing and clustering spread load and remove single points of failure.

Common mistakes

Students confuse 'DMZ' terminology with modern exam wording ('screened subnet') - know both. They also forget that Zero Trust is a strategy applied across the whole architecture, not a single product, and that segmentation (VLANs, screened subnets) is a foundational control referenced across many other domains, including incident containment.

  • Zero Trust operates on 'never trust, always verify' - authentication and authorisation happen on every request, not just once at login.
  • The Zero Trust control plane includes the policy engine and policy administrator; the data plane includes the policy enforcement point.
  • A screened subnet (formerly DMZ) sits between the internet and the internal LAN to host public-facing services safely.
  • Air-gapped systems have zero physical network connectivity - the highest level of network isolation.
  • VLANs provide logical network segmentation without needing separate physical cabling.
  • In the shared responsibility model, the cloud provider secures the underlying cloud infrastructure; the customer always secures their own data and access configuration.
  • Security responsibility shrinks for the customer moving from IaaS to PaaS to SaaS, but data security stays the customer's job throughout.
  • High availability is often expressed as 'five nines', meaning 99.999% uptime.
  • A hot site is fully operational and ready for near-immediate failover; a cold site is the cheapest but slowest to bring online.
  • An extranet gives controlled access to trusted external partners; an intranet is private and internal-only.
  • Containerisation (e.g. Docker) isolates application components but each container image still needs scanning and patching.
  • Serverless computing removes server management overhead but shifts the attack surface to APIs and functions.
What is the core principle of Zero Trust architecture?
Never trust, always verify - every access request is authenticated and authorised regardless of location, with no implicit trust.
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Name the two planes in a Zero Trust model.
The control plane (policy engine and policy administrator) and the data plane (policy enforcement point).
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What is a screened subnet and what was it previously called?
A buffer network zone between the internet and the internal LAN that hosts public-facing servers; previously called a DMZ.
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What is an air-gapped system?
A system with no physical network connection at all, giving the highest level of isolation.
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How do VLANs improve network security?
They logically segment one physical network into separate broadcast domains without needing new physical cabling.
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Under the shared responsibility model, who secures customer data in the cloud?
The customer - always, regardless of whether it's IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS.
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What does 'five nines' availability mean?
99.999% uptime.
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Compare hot, warm and cold sites for disaster recovery.
Hot site: fully operational, fastest failover, most expensive. Warm site: partially equipped, needs some setup. Cold site: basic facility only, cheapest, slowest to activate.
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What's the difference between an intranet and an extranet?
An intranet is a private internal-only network; an extranet gives controlled access to trusted external partners.
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What security concern applies specifically to containerisation?
Each container image must be scanned and patched, since isolating components doesn't remove vulnerabilities inside them.
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What is the main security trade-off of serverless computing?
It removes server management overhead but shifts and expands the attack surface to the API/function layer.
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As you move from IaaS to SaaS, what happens to the customer's security responsibility?
It shrinks overall, but the customer is always responsible for their own data and access configuration.
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What is the purpose of load balancing and clustering in resilient architecture?
To spread workload across multiple systems and remove single points of failure, supporting high availability.
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Security operations

What 'security operations' covers

This domain is the day-to-day running of a secure environment: hardening systems, managing identity, monitoring, and keeping assets under control. It is the biggest single domain on the exam, so know it cold.

Hardening and baselines

  • Apply secure baselines (CIS Benchmarks) then monitor for drift back to insecure defaults.
  • Disable unused ports, protocols and services - the classic mistake is leaving default accounts and default passwords active.
  • Patch management: test patches in a staging ring before production, and track a defined patch cadence (not 'whenever').
  • Mobile hardening options include full device encryption, remote wipe, geofencing and containerisation (COPE, BYOD, CYOD are the ownership models).

Asset and change management

  • You cannot secure what you cannot see - maintain an accurate asset inventory including IoT and decommissioned kit.
  • Every change goes through a formal change management process: request, impact assessment, approval by a change advisory board (CAB), test, implement, and a documented backout plan.
  • Common mistake: skipping the backout plan - the exam will flag a scenario where a change has 'no rollback' as the wrong answer.

Identity and access management

  • Enforce least privilege and need-to-know as defaults, not afterthoughts.
  • Use role-based access control (RBAC) tied to job function, reviewed periodically (access recertification).
  • Onboarding/offboarding must be prompt - offboarding especially: revoke access the same day, not 'next cycle'. Delayed deprovisioning is a favourite exam trap.
  • Privileged access management (PAM) tools give just-in-time, time-boxed admin rights instead of standing privilege.

Monitoring, logging and alerting

  • Centralise logs to a SIEM for correlation; keep clocks synced via NTP so timestamps actually line up across systems.
  • Log retention should match your compliance requirement, not just disk space available.
  • Alert tuning matters: too many false positives causes alert fatigue and real incidents get missed.

Vulnerability management

  • The cycle is: identify (scan), analyse, prioritise (often by CVSS score), remediate, and validate the fix with a rescan.
  • False positive = flagged but not actually a vulnerability; false negative = missed vulnerability that IS present - false negatives are the more dangerous exam answer.
  • Penetration testing needs written authorisation (a rules of engagement document) before it starts - unauthorised testing is illegal even with good intentions.

Common exam mistakes

  • Confusing vulnerability scanning (automated, passive) with penetration testing (manual, exploits weaknesses).
  • Forgetting that hardening is continuous - one-off configuration is not 'secure operations'.
  • CIS Benchmarks are the standard reference for secure configuration baselines.
  • Least privilege and need-to-know must be the default access posture, not exceptions.
  • Offboarding must revoke access immediately - delayed deprovisioning is a common exam trap answer.
  • Every change needs a documented backout/rollback plan approved via change management (CAB).
  • SIEM centralises and correlates logs; NTP keeps timestamps synchronised across all sources.
  • The vulnerability management cycle is: identify, analyse, prioritise, remediate, validate.
  • CVSS score is the standard basis for prioritising which vulnerabilities to fix first.
  • A false negative (missed real vulnerability) is more dangerous than a false positive.
  • Penetration testing requires written authorisation/rules of engagement before it begins.
  • PAM tools grant just-in-time, time-boxed privileged access instead of standing admin rights.
  • Mobile device ownership models are BYOD, COPE and CYOD, each with different hardening options.
  • Patches should be tested in staging before production rollout, on a defined cadence.
What is a CIS Benchmark used for?
A recognised secure configuration baseline for hardening operating systems and applications.
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What access principle means users only get the permissions required for their job?
Least privilege (paired with need-to-know for data access).
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What is the single biggest mistake in offboarding?
Delaying revocation of access instead of doing it immediately when the person leaves.
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What must every approved change include before implementation?
A documented backout/rollback plan.
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What body approves changes in change management?
The Change Advisory Board (CAB).
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Why must system clocks be synced via NTP?
So log timestamps correlate correctly across systems during investigation.
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What are the five steps of the vulnerability management cycle?
Identify, analyse, prioritise, remediate, validate.
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What score is commonly used to prioritise vulnerability remediation?
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) score.
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Which is worse: a false positive or a false negative in vulnerability scanning?
A false negative - it means a real vulnerability was missed entirely.
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What must exist before a penetration test can legally start?
Written authorisation / a rules of engagement document.
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What does PAM stand for and what does it provide?
Privileged Access Management - just-in-time, time-boxed elevated access instead of standing privilege.
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Name the three mobile device ownership models.
BYOD (bring your own device), COPE (corporate-owned, personally enabled), CYOD (choose your own device).
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Where should patches be tested before production deployment?
In a staging environment, following a defined patch cadence.
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What tool centralises and correlates logs for monitoring?
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system.
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What causes alert fatigue in a SOC?
Poorly tuned monitoring generating too many false positives, so real incidents get missed.
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Identity & access management

What IAM covers

Identity & Access Management (IAM) is about proving who someone is (authentication) and then controlling what they can do (authorisation). Security+ tests both the theory and the specific technologies.

Authentication factors

There are three classic factors: something you know (password, PIN), something you have (smart card, token, phone), and something you are (biometrics - fingerprint, iris, face). A fourth, less tested factor is somewhere you are (geolocation). Multifactor authentication (MFA) means combining factors from at least two different categories - two passwords is NOT MFA, it is just two knowledge factors.

Authentication protocols and standards

  • Kerberos uses tickets and a Key Distribution Centre (KDC); tickets typically expire (commonly 10 hours by default in Windows AD), preventing indefinite reuse.
  • LDAP (port 389, or 636 for LDAPS) is the standard for querying directory services like Active Directory.
  • RADIUS (UDP 1812/1813) and TACACS+ (TCP 49) are AAA protocols for network device and remote access authentication. TACACS+ encrypts the whole packet; RADIUS only encrypts the password.
  • SAML, OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect (OIDC) enable federation and single sign-on (SSO) across organisations. SAML uses XML assertions; OAuth issues access tokens; OIDC adds an identity layer on top of OAuth.

Access control models

  • DAC (Discretionary): the resource owner decides who gets access.
  • MAC (Mandatory): access set centrally by security labels/clearance (used in military/government).
  • RBAC (Role-Based): access tied to job role, not the individual.
  • ABAC (Attribute-Based): access decided dynamically from attributes (time, location, device).
  • Rule-Based access control uses if-then rules (e.g. firewall ACLs).

Key principles

  • Least privilege: give users only the access they need to do their job, nothing more.
  • Need to know: even with clearance, only see information relevant to the task.
  • Separation of duties: split critical tasks between two or more people to stop fraud.
  • Just-in-time (JIT) access and privileged access management (PAM) grant elevated rights temporarily, then revoke them.

Common mistakes to avoid

  • Confusing authentication (who you are) with authorisation (what you can do) - a classic exam trap.
  • Forgetting that federation and SSO reduce password fatigue but create a single point of failure if the identity provider is compromised.
  • Assuming biometrics are foolproof - they can be spoofed and cannot be 'reset' like a password if stolen.
  • Not rotating or expiring service account credentials, a top real-world breach cause.
  • MFA requires factors from at least two DIFFERENT categories (know/have/are) - two knowledge factors is not MFA.
  • Kerberos tickets in Windows AD default to a 10-hour maximum lifetime before requiring renewal.
  • LDAP runs on port 389 unencrypted, and LDAPS (secure) runs on port 636.
  • RADIUS uses UDP ports 1812 (authentication) and 1813 (accounting) and encrypts only the password field.
  • TACACS+ runs over TCP port 49 and encrypts the entire packet, unlike RADIUS.
  • SAML uses XML-based assertions for SSO; OAuth 2.0 issues access tokens for authorisation; OpenID Connect adds identity/authentication on top of OAuth.
  • RBAC assigns permissions by job role, while ABAC evaluates dynamic attributes such as time, location and device posture.
  • Least privilege means granting only the minimum access needed for a task, reviewed and revoked when no longer required.
  • Separation of duties requires two or more people to complete a sensitive process, reducing insider fraud risk.
  • Just-in-time (JIT) access grants temporary elevated privileges that expire automatically, a core part of privileged access management (PAM).
  • Federation lets a user authenticate once with an identity provider (IdP) and access multiple trusted service providers without re-entering credentials.
  • Biometric authentication cannot be reset like a password if compromised, and false acceptance/false rejection rates are its key weaknesses.
What are the three classic authentication factors?
Something you know, something you have, something you are (knowledge, possession, inherence).
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Does using two passwords count as MFA?
No - both factors are 'something you know', so it is not multifactor, just two knowledge checks.
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What port does LDAP use unencrypted, and what does LDAPS use?
LDAP uses port 389; LDAPS (encrypted) uses port 636.
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What is the default maximum Kerberos ticket lifetime in Windows Active Directory?
10 hours by default.
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What ports does RADIUS use and what does it encrypt?
UDP 1812 (auth) and 1813 (accounting); it only encrypts the password, not the whole packet.
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How does TACACS+ differ from RADIUS in encryption?
TACACS+ (TCP port 49) encrypts the entire packet, whereas RADIUS only encrypts the password.
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What is the difference between SAML and OAuth 2.0?
SAML uses XML assertions for SSO authentication; OAuth 2.0 issues tokens for delegated authorisation (not primarily identity).
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What does OpenID Connect (OIDC) add to OAuth 2.0?
An identity/authentication layer, allowing verification of who the user is, not just authorisation.
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Define authentication vs authorisation.
Authentication proves who you are; authorisation determines what you are allowed to do once identified.
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What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
Access permissions are assigned based on a user's job role rather than to the individual directly.
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What is Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
Access decisions are made dynamically using attributes like time, location, or device posture.
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What is the principle of least privilege?
Users should be granted only the minimum access necessary to perform their job function.
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What is separation of duties?
Splitting a sensitive task between two or more people so no single individual can complete fraud alone.
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What is just-in-time (JIT) access?
Temporary elevated privileges granted for a task that automatically expire afterward, part of PAM.
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What is the main risk of federated SSO?
The identity provider becomes a single point of failure - if compromised, all federated services are exposed.
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Cryptography & PKI

Symmetric vs asymmetric

Symmetric crypto uses one shared key for encryption and decryption - fast, used for bulk data. AES is the standard, typically AES-256 in GCM mode for authenticated encryption. Key exchange is the weakness - both parties need the same secret safely.

Asymmetric (public key) crypto uses a key pair - public key encrypts or verifies, private key decrypts or signs. RSA (2048-bit minimum, 3072+ recommended) and ECC (256-bit, e.g. secp256r1) are the main algorithms. ECC gives equivalent strength to RSA with much smaller keys, so it suits mobile and IoT.

Hashing

Hashing is one-way - turns data into a fixed-length digest, cannot be reversed. Used for integrity checks and password storage. SHA-256 and SHA-3 are current standards. Never use MD5 or SHA-1 for security purposes - both are broken for collision resistance. Passwords must be salted and hashed with a slow algorithm like bcrypt, scrypt, or Argon2, never a fast general hash alone.

PKI structure

A Certificate Authority (CA) issues digital certificates binding a public key to an identity, following X.509 format. The chain of trust runs Root CA to Intermediate CA to end-entity certificate. Root CAs are kept offline for security. A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is submitted to get a cert issued.

Revocation and validation

CRL (Certificate Revocation List) is a downloadable list of revoked certs - slow and can be large. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) checks a single cert's status in real time - faster. OCSP stapling lets the server provide a signed, timestamped OCSP response itself, improving speed and privacy.

Key exchange and hybrid use

Diffie-Hellman (and ECDHE for forward secrecy) lets two parties agree a shared symmetric key over an insecure channel without sending the key itself. TLS uses this hybrid model: asymmetric crypto for the handshake/key exchange, symmetric crypto (AES) for the actual session data - asymmetric is too slow for bulk encryption.

Digital signatures

Signing uses the sender's private key on a hash of the message; anyone verifies with the sender's public key. This proves authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation.

Common exam traps

  • Confusing which key encrypts vs decrypts in asymmetric crypto (public encrypts/verifies, private decrypts/signs).
  • Forgetting AES is symmetric and RSA/ECC are asymmetric.
  • Thinking hashing is encryption - it is not reversible.
  • Mixing up CRL (list, slower) with OCSP (real-time, single query).
  • Not knowing PFS (Perfect Forward Secrecy) means session keys aren't compromised even if the long-term private key is later exposed - achieved via ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE/ECDHE).
  • AES-256 is the current symmetric encryption standard, commonly used in GCM mode for authenticated encryption.
  • RSA minimum recommended key length is 2048-bit, with 3072-bit or higher for stronger long-term security.
  • SHA-256 and SHA-3 are approved secure hashing algorithms; MD5 and SHA-1 are both broken and must not be used.
  • Passwords must be hashed with a slow, salted algorithm like bcrypt, scrypt, or Argon2 - never plain SHA/MD5.
  • In asymmetric crypto, the public key encrypts or verifies, and the private key decrypts or signs.
  • X.509 is the standard format for digital certificates issued by a Certificate Authority.
  • OCSP checks a single certificate's revocation status in real time; CRL is a downloadable list, slower to use.
  • OCSP stapling lets the web server supply its own signed OCSP response, improving speed and privacy.
  • Diffie-Hellman (especially ECDHE) enables secure key exchange over an insecure channel without transmitting the key.
  • Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) means past session keys stay safe even if the private key is later compromised.
  • TLS uses hybrid encryption: asymmetric for the handshake/key exchange, symmetric (AES) for bulk session data.
  • Root CAs are kept offline; the trust chain runs Root CA to Intermediate CA to end-entity certificate.
What is the current recommended symmetric encryption standard and mode?
AES-256, typically in GCM mode for authenticated encryption.
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What is the minimum recommended RSA key length today?
2048-bit minimum; 3072-bit or higher recommended for stronger security.
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Why is ECC preferred over RSA for mobile and IoT devices?
ECC gives equivalent security strength with much smaller key sizes, so it is faster and less resource-intensive.
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Which two hashing algorithms are considered broken and should not be used for security?
MD5 and SHA-1 - both are vulnerable to collision attacks.
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What algorithms should be used to securely hash and store passwords?
bcrypt, scrypt, or Argon2 - slow, salted algorithms, never a fast general hash alone.
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In asymmetric encryption, which key encrypts and which decrypts?
The public key encrypts (or verifies signatures); the private key decrypts (or creates signatures).
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What standard format do digital certificates follow?
X.509.
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What is the difference between CRL and OCSP?
CRL is a downloadable list of revoked certificates, slower; OCSP checks a single certificate's status in real time, faster.
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What does OCSP stapling do?
Lets the web server provide its own signed, timestamped OCSP response, improving speed and privacy versus a client querying the CA directly.
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What does Diffie-Hellman key exchange achieve?
Allows two parties to agree on a shared symmetric key over an insecure channel without transmitting the key itself.
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What is Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) and how is it achieved?
Session keys remain secure even if the long-term private key is later compromised; achieved using ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE or ECDHE).
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Why does TLS use a hybrid encryption model?
Asymmetric crypto is used for the handshake/key exchange (secure but slow); symmetric crypto (AES) is used for the actual bulk data because it is fast.
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What proves authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation of a message?
A digital signature - created by signing a hash of the message with the sender's private key, verified with their public key.
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Describe the PKI trust chain structure.
Root CA (kept offline) signs Intermediate CA certificates, which sign end-entity certificates, forming a chain of trust.
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What is a CSR?
A Certificate Signing Request - submitted to a CA to request that a certificate be issued for a public key and identity.
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