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Biological molecules

Water and its properties

Water is polar, forming hydrogen bonds. This gives it high specific heat capacity (buffers temperature), high latent heat of vaporisation (cooling via sweat), cohesion (surface tension, transpiration pull) and it acts as a good solvent for polar/ionic substances.

Carbohydrates

Monosaccharides (e.g. glucose, C6H12O6) join by condensation reactions, forming glycosidic bonds and releasing water. Hydrolysis breaks these bonds by adding water.

  • Alpha-glucose forms starch (amylose = 1,4 links, coiled; amylopectin = 1,4 and 1,6 links, branched) and glycogen (highly branched, animal storage).
  • Beta-glucose forms cellulose: chains link via 1,4 bonds but alternate monomers are flipped 180 degrees, giving straight unbranched microfibrils held by many hydrogen bonds, giving cell walls tensile strength.
  • Common mistake: confusing alpha and beta glucose structure, or forgetting cellulose chains cannot coil like starch.

Lipids

Triglycerides = 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acids joined by ester bonds via condensation. Phospholipids = 2 fatty acids + phosphate group, giving a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails, crucial for membrane bilayers. Saturated fatty acids have no C=C double bonds (solid at room temp); unsaturated have one or more, causing kinks that lower melting point.

Proteins

Amino acids share the general structure NH2-CHR-COOH, differing only in the R group. Peptide bonds form by condensation between the amine and carboxyl groups. Primary structure = amino acid sequence; secondary = alpha helices/beta pleated sheets (hydrogen bonds); tertiary = 3D folding (ionic, hydrogen, disulfide bonds, hydrophobic interactions); quaternary = multiple polypeptide chains (e.g. haemoglobin's 4 subunits).

  • Common mistake: forgetting disulfide bonds only form between cysteine residues.

Biochemical tests

  • Benedict's test for reducing sugars: heat with Benedict's solution, brick-red precipitate if positive.
  • Iodine test for starch: blue-black colour change.
  • Biuret test for protein: turns lilac/purple.
  • Emulsion test for lipids: shake with ethanol then water, white emulsion forms.

Enzymes

Enzymes are globular proteins with a specific tertiary-structure active site (induced fit model). Rate increases with temperature until the optimum (denaturation above this breaks hydrogen/ionic bonds in the active site). Extreme pH also denatures enzymes. Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bind the active site; non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere, changing active site shape.

  • Condensation reactions join monomers and release one water molecule per bond formed; hydrolysis adds water to break bonds.
  • Alpha-glucose and beta-glucose differ only in the position of the OH group on carbon 1, but this changes the polymers they form entirely.
  • Cellulose microfibrils are held together by hydrogen bonds between straight, unbranched beta-glucose chains, giving cell walls high tensile strength.
  • Glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin, allowing faster glucose release for animal metabolism.
  • Triglycerides form from 1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids joined by 3 ester bonds via condensation reactions.
  • Unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one C=C double bond, which kinks the chain and lowers the melting point.
  • There are 20 different amino acids in biological proteins, all sharing the structure NH2-CHR-COOH.
  • Quaternary structure only applies to proteins made of more than one polypeptide chain, such as haemoglobin's 4 subunits.
  • The Biuret test turns lilac/purple for a positive protein result; the Benedict's test gives a brick-red precipitate for reducing sugars when heated.
  • Enzymes are denatured by extreme heat or pH because hydrogen and ionic bonds maintaining tertiary structure break, permanently changing the active site shape.
  • Competitive inhibitors bind the active site and compete with substrate, so their effect decreases as substrate concentration rises; non-competitive inhibitors do not.
  • Water's high specific heat capacity comes from hydrogen bonds absorbing energy, helping organisms buffer against rapid temperature changes.
What type of reaction joins monosaccharides together, and what is released?
Condensation reaction, releasing a water molecule per glycosidic bond formed.
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What is the structural difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose?
The position of the OH group on carbon 1 (below the ring in alpha, above in beta).
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Why is cellulose so strong?
Beta-glucose chains are straight and unbranched, held together by many hydrogen bonds forming microfibrils, giving high tensile strength.
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Name the two components of starch and their structures.
Amylose (unbranched, coiled, 1,4 glycosidic bonds) and amylopectin (branched, 1,4 and 1,6 bonds).
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What bond joins fatty acids to glycerol in a triglyceride?
An ester bond, formed by condensation.
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How does a phospholipid differ from a triglyceride?
One fatty acid is replaced by a phosphate group, giving a hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails.
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What is the general structure of an amino acid?
NH2-CHR-COOH, where R is the variable side group.
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What bond forms between amino acids, and by what reaction?
A peptide bond, formed by condensation.
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Describe secondary protein structure.
Alpha helices or beta pleated sheets held together by hydrogen bonds between the polypeptide backbone.
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What bonds stabilise tertiary structure?
Ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, disulfide bonds (between cysteines), and hydrophobic interactions.
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Give an example of a protein with quaternary structure.
Haemoglobin, made of four polypeptide subunits.
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What is the positive result for the iodine test for starch?
Blue-black colour change.
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What is the positive result for the emulsion test for lipids?
A white emulsion forms when the sample is shaken with ethanol then added to water.
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What does the induced fit model describe?
The active site of an enzyme changes shape slightly to mould around the substrate as it binds.
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How does a non-competitive inhibitor reduce enzyme activity?
It binds to a site other than the active site, changing the active site's shape so substrate can no longer bind effectively.
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Cells & the immune system

Cell structure basics

  • Eukaryotic cells (animal, plant, fungal) have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; prokaryotic cells (bacteria) do not.
  • Key organelles: nucleus (DNA, controls cell), rough ER (protein processing, ribosomes attached), smooth ER (lipid synthesis), Golgi apparatus (modifies and packages proteins into vesicles), mitochondria (aerobic respiration, own circular DNA and 70S ribosomes), ribosomes (protein synthesis, 80S in eukaryotes, 70S in prokaryotes and mitochondria/chloroplasts), lysosomes (contain hydrolytic enzymes for digestion).
  • Common mistake: mixing up rough ER (proteins) and smooth ER (lipids), and forgetting mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own 70S ribosomes because of endosymbiotic origin.

Microscopy and magnification

  • Magnification = image size divided by actual size. Always convert units to the same scale before calculating (usually to micrometres, 1 mm = 1000 micrometres).
  • Resolution is the ability to distinguish two close points as separate; electron microscopes have far higher resolution (about 0.1 nanometres) than light microscopes (about 200 nanometres), which is why they reveal organelle ultrastructure.
  • Common mistake: confusing magnification (how much bigger) with resolution (how much detail).

Cell transport

  • Diffusion is passive net movement from high to low concentration; facilitated diffusion uses channel or carrier proteins, still passive, no ATP needed.
  • Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a region of higher water potential to lower water potential across a partially permeable membrane.
  • Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient using ATP and carrier proteins (co-transport uses this for glucose and amino acid absorption in the ileum).

The immune system

  • Non-specific defences include physical barriers (skin, mucus), phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages) that engulf pathogens by phagocytosis, and lysozyme action.
  • Specific immune response involves lymphocytes: B cells give humoral immunity (produce antibodies), T cells give cell-mediated immunity (T helper cells release cytokines, T killer cells destroy infected cells).
  • Antigens are recognised by specific antibodies with a complementary variable region shape, following the lock-and-key style specificity.
  • Clonal selection: the one B or T cell with a complementary receptor is activated, then clonal expansion produces many identical cells (plasma cells secrete antibodies, memory cells remain).
  • Primary response is slow with low antibody concentration; secondary response is faster and stronger because memory cells already exist, giving immunity.
  • Vaccination introduces antigens (weakened, dead pathogen, or antigen fragments) to trigger a primary response and memory cell formation without causing disease; herd immunity protects unvaccinated individuals when enough of the population is immune.
  • Common mistake: saying antibodies destroy pathogens directly; they mark pathogens for destruction (agglutination, opsonisation) or neutralise toxins, they do not kill directly themselves.
  • HIV attacks T helper cells, which weakens the whole immune response over time, eventually leading to AIDS.
  • Light microscope resolution is about 200 nanometres; electron microscope resolution is about 0.1 nanometres.
  • Magnification = image size divided by actual size, with both measurements in the same units.
  • Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S; prokaryotic, mitochondrial and chloroplast ribosomes are 70S.
  • Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own circular DNA, evidence for the endosymbiotic theory.
  • Osmosis is water movement from high to low water potential across a partially permeable membrane.
  • Active transport requires ATP and moves substances against their concentration gradient.
  • Co-transport of glucose and amino acids in the ileum relies on a sodium ion concentration gradient set up by active transport.
  • Phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages is part of the non-specific immune response.
  • B cells provide humoral immunity by producing antibodies; T cells provide cell-mediated immunity.
  • The secondary immune response is faster and stronger than the primary response because memory cells already exist.
  • Vaccines trigger a primary immune response and memory cell production without causing the disease itself.
  • HIV specifically infects and destroys T helper cells, progressively weakening immunity.
What is the difference between magnification and resolution?
Magnification is how much bigger the image appears; resolution is the ability to distinguish two close points as separate.
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What is the approximate resolution of a light microscope?
About 200 nanometres.
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What is the approximate resolution of an electron microscope?
About 0.1 nanometres.
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Why do mitochondria and chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes and their own DNA?
Evidence for the endosymbiotic theory, meaning they were once free-living prokaryotes engulfed by an ancestral cell.
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Define osmosis.
The diffusion of water from a region of higher water potential to lower water potential across a partially permeable membrane.
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What does active transport require that diffusion does not?
ATP energy, since it moves substances against their concentration gradient using carrier proteins.
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How is glucose absorbed in the ileum via co-transport?
A sodium ion gradient, set up by active transport pumping sodium out of epithelial cells, drives glucose in alongside sodium through a co-transporter protein.
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What is phagocytosis?
The non-specific process where phagocytes such as neutrophils and macrophages engulf and digest pathogens.
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What type of immunity do B cells provide?
Humoral immunity, by producing and secreting antibodies from plasma cells.
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What type of immunity do T cells provide?
Cell-mediated immunity, including T helper cells releasing cytokines and T killer cells destroying infected cells.
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What is clonal selection?
The process where the one lymphocyte with a receptor complementary to the antigen is selected and activated to divide.
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Why is the secondary immune response faster than the primary response?
Because memory B and T cells from the first exposure already exist and can respond immediately.
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How does a vaccine produce immunity?
It introduces antigens, such as weakened or dead pathogens or antigen fragments, triggering a primary response and memory cell formation without causing disease.
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What cells does HIV attack?
T helper cells, which weakens the immune response over time and can progress to AIDS.
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What is herd immunity?
Protection of unvaccinated individuals that occurs when a high enough proportion of the population is immune, reducing pathogen spread.
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Exchange & transport

Why exchange surfaces matter

As organisms get bigger, their surface area to volume (SA:V) ratio falls. Diffusion alone (Fick's Law) is too slow over large distances, so big organisms need specialised exchange surfaces plus mass transport systems.

Features of a good exchange surface

  • Large surface area (alveoli, villi, gill lamellae, root hairs)
  • Thin barrier (often one cell thick) for a short diffusion pathway
  • Steep concentration gradient maintained by blood flow or ventilation
  • Good blood supply or ventilation to keep gradients steep

The gas exchange system

Air enters via the trachea, down bronchi, bronchioles, into ~480 million alveoli. Alveolar walls and capillary walls are each one cell thick (squamous epithelium), giving a diffusion pathway of under 1 micrometre. Gas exchange follows Fick's Law: rate is proportional to (SA x concentration gradient) / diffusion distance. Ventilation uses the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, with pressure changes driven by Boyle's Law.

Common mistake

Don't say alveoli 'absorb' oxygen — they are the site of diffusion, not absorption (that word is for the small intestine). Also remember it is the concentration gradient, not oxygen concentration alone, that drives diffusion rate.

Mammalian transport: the heart and vessels

Mammals have a double circulatory system: pulmonary (heart to lungs) and systemic (heart to body). This is needed because a single circuit would lose too much pressure after passing through capillaries. The cardiac cycle has three stages: atrial systole, ventricular systole, diastole, controlled by the SAN (pacemaker), which triggers the AVN, then the Bundle of His and Purkyne fibres.

Vessel structure links to function

  • Arteries: thick muscular/elastic walls, narrow lumen, withstand high pressure
  • Capillaries: one-cell-thick walls, allow diffusion of substances
  • Veins: thin walls, wide lumen, valves prevent backflow at low pressure

Haemoglobin and oxygen transport

Haemoglobin's oxygen dissociation curve is S-shaped (sigmoidal) due to cooperative binding. A higher CO2 concentration shifts the curve right (the Bohr effect), meaning haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to respiring tissues. Fetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin, shifting its curve to the left, so oxygen transfers from mother to fetus across the placenta.

Plant transport

Xylem transports water via the cohesion-tension theory: transpiration pulls water up through cohesion (hydrogen bonding between water molecules) and adhesion to xylem walls, under tension, with no ATP required. Phloem transports sugars (mainly sucrose) via mass flow (translocation), from source (e.g. leaves) to sink (e.g. roots, fruits), which does require active transport (companion cells load sucrose into sieve tubes).

  • SA:V ratio decreases as organisms get larger, which is why mass transport systems evolved
  • Fick's Law: diffusion rate is proportional to surface area x concentration gradient, divided by diffusion distance
  • Alveoli and capillary walls are each one cell thick (squamous epithelium), giving a diffusion distance under 1 micrometre
  • Mammals have a double circulatory system: one pulmonary loop and one systemic loop
  • The SAN (sinoatrial node) is the heart's natural pacemaker, located in the wall of the right atrium
  • The oxygen dissociation curve is sigmoidal (S-shaped) because of cooperative binding of oxygen to haemoglobin
  • The Bohr effect: higher CO2 concentration shifts the dissociation curve right, increasing oxygen release to tissues
  • Fetal haemoglobin has a higher oxygen affinity than adult haemoglobin, shifting its curve to the left
  • Water moves up xylem via the cohesion-tension theory, driven by transpiration and requiring no ATP
  • Phloem transports sucrose from source to sink by mass flow (translocation), which requires active loading by companion cells
  • Arteries have thick muscular and elastic walls to withstand high pressure from the heart
  • Veins contain valves to prevent backflow of blood at low pressure
Why does SA:V ratio decrease as organisms get bigger?
Volume increases faster than surface area as size increases, so larger organisms need specialised exchange surfaces and mass transport systems
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State Fick's Law in words
Rate of diffusion is proportional to surface area multiplied by concentration gradient, divided by diffusion distance
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What is the diffusion distance across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
Less than 1 micrometre, since both walls are a single layer of squamous epithelium
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Why do mammals need a double circulatory system?
Blood loses pressure passing through capillaries, so it must return to the heart to be re-pressurised before travelling round the body
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What triggers each heartbeat and where is it located?
The sinoatrial node (SAN), the pacemaker, located in the wall of the right atrium
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What is the conduction pathway of electrical excitation in the heart?
SAN triggers atrial contraction, then the AVN, then the Bundle of His, then Purkyne fibres, causing ventricular contraction
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Why is the oxygen dissociation curve S-shaped?
Because haemoglobin binding is cooperative: binding the first oxygen molecule makes it easier for the next ones to bind
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What is the Bohr effect?
Increased CO2 concentration shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, so haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to respiring tissues
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How does fetal haemoglobin differ from adult haemoglobin?
It has a higher affinity for oxygen, so its dissociation curve sits to the left, allowing oxygen transfer from mother to fetus
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Explain the cohesion-tension theory of water movement in xylem
Transpiration from leaves creates tension that pulls a continuous column of water up the xylem, held together by cohesion (hydrogen bonds) and adhesion to vessel walls, using no ATP
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How is sucrose loaded into phloem sieve tubes?
Companion cells actively load sucrose into sieve tube elements, using ATP, creating a high solute concentration that draws water in by osmosis
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Define source and sink in translocation
Source is where sugars are made or released (e.g. photosynthesising leaves); sink is where sugars are used or stored (e.g. roots, fruits, growing tissues)
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Compare artery and vein wall structure
Arteries have thick muscular and elastic walls with a narrow lumen for high pressure; veins have thin walls, a wide lumen, and valves for low-pressure flow
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Why are capillary walls only one cell thick?
To minimise diffusion distance so substances can exchange quickly between blood and tissues
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Genetics & variation

DNA to protein

Genes are lengths of DNA that code for polypeptides. Each amino acid is coded by a triplet of DNA bases (a codon on mRNA). The genetic code is degenerate (61 codons for 20 amino acids), non-overlapping and (with rare exceptions) universal across organisms.

A gene mutation is any change to the base sequence of DNA. Types include substitution, deletion, insertion, inversion and duplication. Deletions and insertions usually cause a frame shift, changing every codon downstream of the mutation, so they tend to have a bigger effect than a single substitution. Substitutions can be silent (same amino acid, due to degeneracy), missense (different amino acid) or nonsense (creates a premature stop codon).

Meiosis and variation

Meiosis is the division that produces four genetically different haploid gametes from one diploid cell, halving the chromosome number. Two processes generate variation: independent assortment (chromosomes line up randomly at metaphase I, giving 2^n combinations, where n is the haploid number) and crossing over (homologous chromatids exchange sections at chiasmata during prophase I). Random fertilisation adds further variation by combining any one of millions of possible sperm with any one of millions of possible eggs.

Chi-squared test

Use the chi-squared test to check if observed genetic ratios (e.g. from a dihybrid cross) differ significantly from expected ratios. Formula: sum of (O-E)^2 / E. Compare your calculated value to the critical value at p=0.05 for the correct degrees of freedom (categories minus 1). If your value exceeds the critical value, reject the null hypothesis; the difference is significant and not due to chance.

Evolution and speciation

Natural selection acts on existing variation created by mutation. Alleles that increase survival and reproduction become more frequent in a population over generations. Speciation happens when populations become reproductively isolated (geographically - allopatric, or by behaviour/habitat/timing - sympatric) and diverge until they can no longer interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

Common mistakes

  • Mixing up gene, allele and locus: a locus is the fixed position on a chromosome, an allele is a version of the gene at that locus.
  • Forgetting that a mutation must occur in a gamete-forming cell to be inherited by offspring.
  • Saying a base change 'always' changes the protein - remind yourself of degeneracy.
  • Not stating degrees of freedom correctly in chi-squared (it's categories minus 1, not sample size minus 1).
  • Confusing meiosis (produces gametes, halves chromosome number) with mitosis (produces identical body cells).
  • A codon is a triplet of three DNA/mRNA bases coding for one amino acid.
  • There are 64 possible codons but only 20 amino acids, so the code is degenerate.
  • Independent assortment alone gives 2^n possible chromosome combinations in gametes, where n is the haploid number.
  • Crossing over happens between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at chiasmata in prophase I of meiosis.
  • Meiosis produces four haploid, genetically different daughter cells from one diploid parent cell.
  • A gene mutation is any change in the base sequence of DNA; insertions and deletions cause a frame shift.
  • Chi-squared degrees of freedom equals the number of categories minus one.
  • The critical p-value used in biology to accept or reject the null hypothesis is normally 0.05 (5 percent).
  • A silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.
  • A nonsense mutation creates a premature stop codon, truncating the protein.
  • Speciation requires reproductive isolation between populations for long enough that they can no longer produce fertile offspring together.
  • Natural selection changes allele frequency in a population over generations; it does not create new alleles, mutation does.
What is a codon?
A triplet of three bases on mRNA (or DNA) that codes for one amino acid.
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Why is the genetic code described as degenerate?
Because there are 64 codons but only 20 amino acids, so most amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
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Name two sources of genetic variation created during meiosis.
Independent assortment of chromosomes at metaphase I, and crossing over between homologous chromatids at chiasmata in prophase I.
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Give the formula for calculating 2^n possible gamete combinations from independent assortment.
2^n, where n is the haploid number of chromosomes.
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What is a frame shift mutation and which mutation types cause it?
A shift in the reading frame of the whole downstream sequence, caused by insertion or deletion of bases (not usually by substitution).
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Define a silent mutation.
A base substitution that does not change the amino acid coded for, due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.
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Define a nonsense mutation.
A base substitution that changes a codon into a premature stop codon, truncating the protein.
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What does the chi-squared test check in genetics?
Whether the difference between observed and expected ratios (e.g. from a genetic cross) is statistically significant or due to chance.
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State the chi-squared formula.
Chi-squared equals the sum of (Observed minus Expected) squared, divided by Expected, for each category.
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How do you find degrees of freedom for a chi-squared test?
Number of categories minus one.
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What p-value is normally used as the significance threshold in biology?
0.05 (5 percent).
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What happens if the calculated chi-squared value exceeds the critical value?
The null hypothesis is rejected; the difference between observed and expected results is statistically significant.
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What is the difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation?
Allopatric speciation occurs through geographical isolation; sympatric speciation occurs without geographical separation, through other reproductive barriers such as behaviour or timing.
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Does natural selection create new alleles?
No. Mutation creates new alleles; natural selection changes the frequency of existing alleles in a population.
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Energy transfers (photosynthesis & respiration)

Photosynthesis: the light-dependent stage

Photosynthesis happens in the chloroplast. Light energy hits chlorophyll in photosystems II and I, embedded in the thylakoid membrane. Photoionisation splits water (photolysis) into protons, electrons and oxygen (the oxygen is a waste product, released through the stomata).

Electrons pass down an electron transport chain, releasing energy used to pump protons into the thylakoid space, building a proton gradient. Protons flow back through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis) making ATP. NADP picks up protons and electrons to form reduced NADP.

Photosynthesis: the light-independent stage (Calvin cycle)

This happens in the stroma and does not need light directly, but needs the ATP and reduced NADP made in the light-dependent stage.

  • CO2 combines with RuBP (5C) using the enzyme rubisco, forming an unstable 6C compound that splits into two molecules of GP (3C).
  • GP is reduced to TP (3C) using ATP and reduced NADP.
  • Most TP regenerates RuBP (using more ATP); some TP is used to make glucose and other organic molecules.

Respiration: the four stages

Glycolysis happens in the cytoplasm, does not need oxygen, and splits glucose (6C) into two pyruvate (3C) molecules, giving a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 reduced NAD.

The link reaction (in the mitochondrial matrix) converts pyruvate to acetate, releasing CO2 and reducing NAD; acetate combines with coenzyme A.

The Krebs cycle (matrix) combines acetyl CoA with a 4C compound, releasing CO2 and generating reduced NAD, reduced FAD and 1 ATP per turn (it turns twice per glucose).

Oxidative phosphorylation (inner mitochondrial membrane, cristae) uses the electron transport chain: electrons from reduced NAD/FAD release energy to pump protons, creating a gradient used by ATP synthase to make ATP by chemiosmosis. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor, forming water.

Anaerobic respiration

Without oxygen, glycolysis still runs but pyruvate cannot enter the link reaction. In animals, pyruvate is reduced to lactate, regenerating NAD so glycolysis can continue (only 2 ATP per glucose overall). In yeast and plants, pyruvate is decarboxylated to ethanal then reduced to ethanol, also regenerating NAD.

Common mistakes

  • Do not say photosynthesis 'makes energy' — energy is transferred and transformed, never created.
  • Oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from water, not CO2.
  • Glycolysis happens whether or not oxygen is present — it is not the anaerobic pathway itself.
  • Know the approximate ATP yield: roughly 30 ATP per glucose in aerobic respiration is the modern accepted OCR figure (older textbooks say 38 — OCR now favours ~30 due to proton leak and transport costs).
  • Chemiosmosis is the shared mechanism linking photosynthesis and respiration — both use a proton gradient across a membrane and ATP synthase.
  • Photolysis splits water into protons, electrons and oxygen during the light-dependent reaction.
  • Rubisco fixes CO2 onto RuBP (5C), forming an unstable 6C compound that splits into two GP (3C) molecules.
  • Glycolysis nets 2 ATP and 2 reduced NAD per glucose and occurs in the cytoplasm without needing oxygen.
  • The link reaction converts pyruvate (3C) to acetate (2C), releasing CO2 and reducing NAD.
  • The Krebs cycle turns twice per glucose molecule, producing reduced NAD, reduced FAD, ATP and CO2 each turn.
  • Oxidative phosphorylation occurs on the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae) and uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor to form water.
  • Chemiosmosis is the flow of protons through ATP synthase down their concentration gradient to generate ATP.
  • In animal cells, anaerobic respiration reduces pyruvate to lactate to regenerate NAD, yielding just 2 ATP per glucose.
  • In yeast, anaerobic respiration produces ethanol and CO2 via decarboxylation of pyruvate to ethanal.
  • The modern accepted approximate ATP yield from aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule is about 30 ATP.
  • TP (triose phosphate) from the Calvin cycle is used to regenerate RuBP and to build glucose and other organic molecules.
  • Both photosynthesis and respiration use an electron transport chain and chemiosmosis across a membrane to generate ATP.
Where does the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis take place?
The thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.
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What is photolysis and what does it produce?
The light-driven splitting of water into protons, electrons and oxygen.
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Which enzyme fixes CO2 in the Calvin cycle, and onto what molecule?
Rubisco fixes CO2 onto RuBP (a 5-carbon compound).
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What happens to the unstable 6C compound formed when CO2 combines with RuBP?
It immediately splits into two molecules of GP (glycerate 3-phosphate), a 3C compound.
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What are the net ATP and reduced NAD outputs of glycolysis per glucose?
2 ATP (net) and 2 reduced NAD, plus 2 pyruvate molecules.
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Where does glycolysis occur and does it require oxygen?
In the cytoplasm; it does not require oxygen.
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What happens in the link reaction?
Pyruvate (3C) is decarboxylated and dehydrogenated to acetate (2C), releasing CO2 and reducing NAD; acetate joins coenzyme A.
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How many times does the Krebs cycle turn per glucose molecule, and why?
Twice, because each glucose produces two pyruvate molecules, each giving one acetyl CoA.
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Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
On the cristae, the inner mitochondrial membrane.
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What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, and what does it form?
Oxygen, which combines with electrons and protons to form water.
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What happens to pyruvate during anaerobic respiration in animal cells?
It is reduced to lactate, regenerating NAD so glycolysis can continue.
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What happens to pyruvate during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
It is decarboxylated to ethanal, then reduced to ethanol, regenerating NAD.
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What is chemiosmosis?
The flow of protons down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase, generating ATP; used in both photosynthesis and respiration.
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What is the modern OCR-accepted approximate ATP yield per glucose in aerobic respiration?
About 30 ATP (older figure of 38 is now considered outdated).
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Where does the oxygen released during photosynthesis come from?
From the splitting of water (photolysis), not from carbon dioxide.
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Response, homeostasis & gene expression

Homeostasis basics

  • Homeostasis keeps internal conditions (blood glucose, water potential, core temperature, pH, CO2) within narrow limits around a set point.
  • Negative feedback returns a system to normal after a deviation; positive feedback amplifies a change (rare, e.g. childbirth, blood clotting).
  • Control needs a receptor (detects stimulus), coordinator (processes info, e.g. CNS or gland), and effector (muscle or gland that responds).

Nervous vs hormonal control

  • Nervous signals are electrical, fast, short-lived, travel along neurones to a precise target.
  • Hormonal signals are chemical, slower, longer-lasting, travel in blood to widespread targets.
  • A reflex arc: receptor to sensory neurone to relay neurone in the CNS to motor neurone to effector. It is involuntary and protects the body quickly.

The nerve impulse

  • Resting potential is about -70mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in, using ATP) and K+ leaking out faster than Na+ leaks in.
  • A stimulus above threshold (around -55mV) opens voltage-gated Na+ channels, causing rapid depolarisation to about +40mV.
  • Repolarisation follows as Na+ channels close and K+ channels open, letting K+ leave; a brief hyperpolarisation (undershoot) follows before the pump restores rest.
  • The refractory period ensures impulses are unidirectional and gives the all-or-nothing response.
  • Myelinated neurones show saltatory conduction, jumping between nodes of Ranvier, which is much faster than continuous conduction in unmyelinated axons.
  • Common mistake: students confuse depolarisation (Na+ in) with repolarisation (K+ out) — always state which ion and which direction.

Synapses

  • An action potential triggers Ca2+ influx at the presynaptic knob, causing vesicles to fuse and release neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) by exocytosis.
  • Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, opening Na+ channels and triggering a new impulse if threshold is reached.
  • Enzymes (e.g. acetylcholinesterase) break down neurotransmitter to stop continuous stimulation.
  • Synapses ensure one-way transmission and allow summation (spatial and temporal) to reach threshold.

Homeostatic control of blood glucose and body temperature

  • Blood glucose is regulated by insulin (lowers glucose, promotes uptake and glycogenesis in liver/muscle) and glucagon (raises glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis), both from the pancreas.
  • Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune destruction of beta cells (no insulin); Type 2 is reduced receptor sensitivity/insulin resistance.
  • The hypothalamus contains the thermoregulatory centre; skin thermoreceptors and the hypothalamus itself detect temperature changes, triggering vasodilation/vasoconstriction, sweating, and shivering.

Gene expression

  • Gene expression is controlled at transcription (e.g. transcription factors, promoters), post-transcription (RNA splicing, siRNA), translation, and post-translation (protein modification).
  • Totipotent cells can become any cell type (early embryo); pluripotent cells can become almost any type; differentiation restricts gene expression permanently in most body cells.
  • Epigenetics: DNA methylation and histone acetylation change gene expression without altering the DNA base sequence; can be inherited and reversible.
  • Resting potential of a neurone is about -70mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium pump moving 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per cycle.
  • Threshold for an action potential is typically around -55mV, triggering depolarisation to about +40mV.
  • Depolarisation is caused by Na+ influx; repolarisation is caused by K+ efflux.
  • Myelinated neurones conduct impulses faster via saltatory conduction, jumping between nodes of Ranvier.
  • The refractory period prevents impulses overlapping and ensures unidirectional transmission.
  • At a synapse, Ca2+ influx into the presynaptic knob triggers neurotransmitter release by exocytosis.
  • Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting glycogenesis and cellular uptake; glucagon raises it via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
  • Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells; Type 2 results from reduced insulin sensitivity.
  • The hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre, coordinating vasodilation, vasoconstriction, sweating and shivering.
  • Negative feedback restores a set point; positive feedback amplifies change (e.g. childbirth, blood clotting).
  • Totipotent cells can form any cell type including extra-embryonic tissue; pluripotent cells can form almost any body cell type.
  • Epigenetic changes such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation alter gene expression without changing the DNA base sequence.
What is the resting potential of a neurone and how is it maintained?
About -70mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium pump moving 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per cycle, using ATP.
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What ion movement causes depolarisation?
Na+ influx through voltage-gated sodium channels once threshold (around -55mV) is reached.
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What ion movement causes repolarisation?
K+ efflux through voltage-gated potassium channels as Na+ channels close.
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What is saltatory conduction?
Impulses jumping between nodes of Ranvier in myelinated neurones, making conduction much faster.
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Why is the refractory period important?
It prevents overlapping impulses, ensures unidirectional transmission, and underlies the all-or-nothing response.
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What triggers neurotransmitter release at a synapse?
Ca2+ influx into the presynaptic knob causes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release neurotransmitter by exocytosis.
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What breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
Acetylcholinesterase, preventing continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane.
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What does insulin do and where is it made?
Made by beta cells in the pancreas; lowers blood glucose by promoting glycogenesis and cellular glucose uptake.
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What does glucagon do and where is it made?
Made by alpha cells in the pancreas; raises blood glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver.
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What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
Type 1 is autoimmune destruction of beta cells (no insulin); Type 2 is reduced receptor sensitivity or insulin resistance.
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What structure coordinates thermoregulation?
The hypothalamus, which detects temperature via thermoreceptors and triggers vasodilation, vasoconstriction, sweating or shivering.
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What is the difference between negative and positive feedback?
Negative feedback returns a system to its set point; positive feedback amplifies a deviation, as in childbirth or blood clotting.
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What is the difference between totipotent and pluripotent cells?
Totipotent cells can form any cell type including extra-embryonic tissue; pluripotent cells can form almost any body cell type but not extra-embryonic tissue.
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Give two ways gene expression can be controlled epigenetically.
DNA methylation (usually silences genes) and histone acetylation (usually activates genes), both without changing the DNA base sequence.
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What are the three components of a reflex arc pathway?
Receptor, sensory neurone, relay neurone (in CNS), motor neurone, and effector, giving a fast involuntary response.
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