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Biological molecules

Biological molecules: the basics

All biological molecules are built from monomers joined by condensation reactions, which release water. Hydrolysis reactions add water back in to break bonds. This applies to carbohydrates, proteins and lipids alike.

Carbohydrates

Monosaccharides like glucose (C6H12O6) join via glycosidic bonds. Alpha-glucose forms starch and glycogen; beta-glucose forms cellulose.

  • Starch = amylose (unbranched, coiled, 1,4 bonds) + amylopectin (branched, 1,4 and 1,6 bonds). Good storage: compact, insoluble, doesn't affect water potential.
  • Glycogen: more branched than amylopectin, so faster glucose release for animals with a higher metabolic rate.
  • Cellulose: beta-glucose chains run in straight, unbranched lines, cross-linked by hydrogen bonds into strong microfibrils for cell walls.
  • Common mistake: mixing up which glucose isomer makes which polymer, and forgetting glycosidic bonds form by condensation.

Lipids

Triglycerides = 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acids joined by ester bonds via condensation. Phospholipids replace one fatty acid with a phosphate group, giving a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails, which is exactly why they form bilayers in membranes. Saturated fatty acids have no C=C double bonds and pack tightly (solid at room temp); unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds causing kinks that lower melting point.

Proteins

Amino acids share the general structure H2N-CHR-COOH, differing only in the R group. Peptide bonds form between the amine and carboxyl groups by condensation, releasing water. Levels of structure:

  • Primary: amino acid sequence.
  • Secondary: alpha helices/beta pleated sheets, held by hydrogen bonds.
  • Tertiary: 3D folding of a single polypeptide, held by hydrogen, ionic and disulfide bonds plus hydrophobic interactions.
  • Quaternary: multiple polypeptide chains together (e.g. haemoglobin has 4 chains).

Common mistake: saying protein structure is 'held together by peptide bonds' at the tertiary/quaternary level — peptide bonds only form primary structure; the rest are held by weaker interactions.

Water and inorganic ions

Water is polar (due to unequal sharing of electrons between O and H) so it forms hydrogen bonds, giving it high specific heat capacity, high latent heat of vaporisation, cohesion and surface tension, and making it a good solvent for polar/ionic substances. Key ions to know: hydrogen ions (pH), iron ions (haemoglobin), sodium ions (co-transport).

Practical tests

  • Benedict's test for reducing sugars: heat with Benedict's reagent, positive = brick-red precipitate.
  • Iodine test for starch: blue-black colour.
  • Biuret test for protein: purple/lilac colour.
  • Emulsion test for lipids: shake with ethanol then water, positive = white emulsion.
  • Non-reducing sugars: hydrolyse with HCl first, neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate, then Benedict's test.
  • Condensation reactions join monomers and release water; hydrolysis reactions use water to break bonds.
  • Alpha-glucose forms starch and glycogen; beta-glucose forms cellulose.
  • Glycogen is more branched than amylopectin, allowing faster glucose release.
  • Triglycerides form from 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acids joined by ester bonds via condensation.
  • Phospholipids have a hydrophilic phosphate head and two hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
  • Peptide bonds form between amino acids by condensation and only determine primary structure.
  • Tertiary structure is held by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bonds and hydrophobic interactions.
  • Haemoglobin's quaternary structure consists of four polypeptide chains.
  • Benedict's test for reducing sugars gives a brick-red precipitate on heating.
  • Iodine test for starch gives a blue-black colour.
  • Biuret test for protein gives a purple/lilac colour.
  • Non-reducing sugars must be hydrolysed with HCl, then neutralised, before a Benedict's test will detect them.
What type of reaction joins monomers together, and what is released?
Condensation reaction; water is released.
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What type of reaction breaks polymers apart, and what is used?
Hydrolysis reaction; water is used to break the bond.
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Which glucose isomer forms starch and glycogen?
Alpha-glucose.
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Which glucose isomer forms cellulose?
Beta-glucose.
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Why is glycogen more suited to animals than amylopectin?
It is more branched, giving more ends for enzymes to act on, so glucose is released faster to match higher animal metabolic rate.
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What bond joins fatty acids to glycerol in a triglyceride?
An ester bond, formed by condensation.
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How does a phospholipid differ from a triglyceride?
One fatty acid is replaced by a phosphate group, giving a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.
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What bond forms between amino acids, and by what reaction?
A peptide bond, formed by condensation.
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What determines a protein's primary structure?
The sequence of amino acids, held together by peptide bonds.
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What bonds/interactions hold tertiary structure together?
Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bonds and hydrophobic interactions.
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What is quaternary structure?
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide chains together, e.g. haemoglobin's four chains.
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Why does water have a high specific heat capacity?
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules absorb a lot of energy before temperature rises.
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What is the positive result colour for the Biuret test?
Purple/lilac.
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What is the positive result colour for the iodine test on starch?
Blue-black.
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How do you test for a non-reducing sugar?
Hydrolyse with HCl, neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate solution, then carry out the Benedict's test (brick-red precipitate = positive).
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Cells & the immune system

Cell structure basics

Eukaryotic cells (animal, plant, fungal) have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; prokaryotic cells (bacteria) do not. Know the ultrastructure: nucleus (nucleolus makes rRNA, nuclear envelope has pores), mitochondria (double membrane, cristae, matrix, site of aerobic respiration), rough ER (ribosomes, protein transport), smooth ER (lipid synthesis), Golgi apparatus (modifies and packages proteins into vesicles), lysosomes (digestive enzymes), ribosomes (80S in eukaryotes, 70S in prokaryotes and mitochondria/chloroplasts - a key exam fact for endosymbiotic theory).

Magnification and resolution

Magnification = image size divided by actual size. Always convert units to the same scale first (usually micrometres, 1 mm = 1000 micrometres). Resolution is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still be seen as separate; it is NOT the same as magnification. Electron microscopes have far higher resolution than light microscopes because electrons have a shorter wavelength. TEM gives 2D internal detail from thin sections; SEM gives 3D surface detail. Common mistake: students confuse magnification (how much bigger) with resolution (how clear/detailed).

Cell division

Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells for growth and repair; phases are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (PMAT). Meiosis produces four genetically different haploid gametes through two divisions, involving crossing over and independent assortment for genetic variation.

The immune system

Pathogens have antigens on their surface that the immune system recognises as non-self. Phagocytes (e.g. macrophages) engulf pathogens by phagocytosis and present antigens on their surface. T-helper cells bind to these antigens and release cytokines to activate B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells. B-cells undergo clonal selection and differentiate into plasma cells, which secrete specific antibodies, and memory cells, which give a faster, stronger secondary immune response on re-infection. Antibodies are Y-shaped proteins with a variable region that binds specifically to one antigen (complementary shape), causing agglutination or acting as opsonins.

Vaccination and HIV

Vaccination introduces antigens (weakened, dead, or subunit) to trigger primary response and memory cell formation without causing disease; herd immunity protects unvaccinated individuals when enough of the population is immune. HIV is a retrovirus that infects and destroys T-helper cells, weakening the whole immune response and eventually causing AIDS. Common mistake: students say antibodies 'kill' pathogens directly - they mark them for destruction or neutralise them, they do not lyse cells themselves in most cases.

  • Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S; eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S, and mitochondrial/chloroplast ribosomes are also 70S.
  • Resolution is the minimum distance between two points still seen as separate; it is different from magnification.
  • Electron microscopes have higher resolution than light microscopes because electrons have a much shorter wavelength.
  • Magnification = image size divided by actual size; always convert to matching units first.
  • Mitosis has four phases in order: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (PMAT).
  • Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid cells; meiosis produces four genetically different haploid gametes.
  • Phagocytes engulf pathogens by phagocytosis and present antigens on their cell surface.
  • T-helper cells release cytokines that activate B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
  • B-cells differentiate into plasma cells (secrete antibodies) and memory cells (enable faster secondary response).
  • Antibodies have a variable region that is complementary in shape to one specific antigen.
  • HIV is a retrovirus that specifically infects and destroys T-helper cells, weakening the immune system.
  • Vaccines trigger a primary immune response and memory cell formation without causing the disease itself.
What is the difference between magnification and resolution?
Magnification is how much bigger the image is than the real object; resolution is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still appear separate.
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Why do electron microscopes have higher resolution than light microscopes?
Electrons have a much shorter wavelength than light, allowing finer detail to be resolved.
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What is the ribosome size in prokaryotic cells and in mitochondria/chloroplasts?
70S, which supports the endosymbiotic theory that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from prokaryotes.
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What is the ribosome size in eukaryotic cytoplasm?
80S.
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State the four phases of mitosis in order.
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (PMAT).
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What is produced by mitosis versus meiosis?
Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid cells; meiosis produces four genetically different haploid gametes.
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What is an antigen?
A molecule (usually protein) on a cell or pathogen surface that the immune system can recognise as self or non-self.
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What do phagocytes do during an immune response?
Engulf and digest pathogens by phagocytosis, then present the pathogen's antigens on their own surface.
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What is the role of T-helper cells?
They bind to presented antigens and release cytokines that activate B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
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What happens during clonal selection of B-cells?
A B-cell with a complementary antibody binds the antigen, is activated by T-helper cell signals, and divides by mitosis into plasma cells and memory cells.
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What is the function of plasma cells?
They secrete large quantities of a specific antibody into the blood.
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What is the function of memory cells?
They remain in the body long-term and enable a faster, stronger secondary immune response if the same antigen is met again.
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Why does a vaccine not cause the disease it protects against?
It contains a weakened, dead, or partial form of the pathogen's antigen, enough to trigger an immune response but not enough to cause illness.
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What is herd immunity?
When a high enough proportion of a population is immune, the spread of a pathogen is limited, indirectly protecting unvaccinated individuals.
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How does HIV affect the immune system?
It is a retrovirus that infects and destroys T-helper cells, weakening the whole immune response and potentially leading to AIDS.
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Exchange & transport

Why organisms need exchange surfaces

As organisms get bigger, their surface area to volume (SA:V) ratio falls. A single-celled amoeba can exchange gases across its own membrane, but a mammal cannot, so specialised exchange surfaces evolved. All good exchange surfaces share: a large surface area, a thin barrier (short diffusion pathway), a steep concentration gradient maintained by blood/ventilation flow, and (in animals) selective permeability.

The gaseous exchange system

Humans ventilate using the intercostal muscles and diaphragm. On inspiration the diaphragm contracts and flattens, external intercostals contract, the ribcage moves up and out, thoracic volume increases, pressure falls below atmospheric, and air moves in. Expiration at rest is passive: the diaphragm relaxes and domes upward, volume falls, pressure rises above atmospheric.

Gas exchange happens across the alveolar epithelium. Alveoli have thin (one-cell-thick) squamous epithelium, a huge combined surface area (around 70 m2), and are surrounded by a dense capillary network, keeping the diffusion pathway under 1 micrometre. Alveoli also produce surfactant, which reduces surface tension and stops them collapsing.

Common mistake

Do not say 'oxygen is pumped into the blood' - it moves entirely by diffusion down a concentration gradient maintained by continuous blood flow and ventilation.

The circulatory system

Mammals have a double closed circulatory system: the pulmonary circuit (heart to lungs and back) and the systemic circuit (heart to body and back). Double circulation keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate and lets blood be re-pressurised after the low-pressure lungs.

The cardiac cycle has three phases: atrial systole, ventricular systole, and diastole. The SAN (sinoatrial node) in the right atrium wall acts as the pacemaker, initiating a wave of excitation. This is delayed briefly at the AVN (atrioventricular node) so atria finish contracting before ventricles start, then passed down the Bundle of His and Purkyne fibres to the ventricle apex, causing contraction from the bottom up.

Arteries have thick muscular and elastic walls to withstand and smooth high pressure. Veins have thinner walls, a wider lumen, and valves to prevent backflow at low pressure. Capillaries are one cell thick with pores for exchange.

Xylem and phloem in plants

Xylem transports water and mineral ions upwards via the transpiration stream, powered by cohesion-tension: water evaporates from leaf mesophyll (transpiration), pulling a continuous water column up through dead, lignified xylem vessels via cohesion (hydrogen bonding between water molecules) and adhesion to vessel walls.

Phloem transports sugars (mainly sucrose) both up and down the plant via translocation, using the mass flow hypothesis: sucrose is actively loaded into phloem sieve tubes at the source (companion cells use ATP for active transport), lowering water potential and drawing water in by osmosis, raising hydrostatic pressure; at the sink, sucrose is removed, water follows by osmosis, and pressure falls, creating a mass flow from high to low pressure.

Common mistake

Xylem transport is passive (transpiration pull); phloem translocation requires active loading, so a metabolic poison stops phloem transport but not xylem transport.

  • SA:V ratio falls as organisms get larger, driving the need for specialised exchange surfaces
  • Alveolar surface area in human lungs is approximately 70 square metres
  • Diffusion distance across the alveolar-capillary membrane is under 1 micrometre
  • The SAN (sinoatrial node) in the right atrium is the heart's natural pacemaker
  • The AVN delays the electrical impulse so atria fully empty before ventricles contract
  • Humans have a double closed circulatory system: pulmonary and systemic circuits
  • Inspiration is always active (diaphragm and external intercostals contract); expiration at rest is passive
  • Xylem tissue is dead and lignified; water movement up xylem is entirely passive (cohesion-tension)
  • Phloem translocation requires ATP for active loading of sucrose into sieve tubes at the source
  • Cohesion is hydrogen bonding between water molecules; adhesion is water bonding to xylem vessel walls
  • Arteries have thick muscular/elastic walls for high pressure; veins have valves to prevent backflow at low pressure
  • Surfactant lowers surface tension in alveoli, preventing them from collapsing on expiration
Why do larger organisms need specialised exchange surfaces?
SA:V ratio decreases as size increases, so diffusion alone across the outer body surface cannot supply cells fast enough
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What is the approximate total surface area of human alveoli?
About 70 square metres
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What happens during inspiration?
Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, thoracic volume increases, pressure drops below atmospheric, air moves in
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Is expiration at rest active or passive?
Passive - diaphragm and external intercostals relax, volume decreases, pressure rises above atmospheric
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What does the SAN do?
Sinoatrial node in the right atrium acts as the heart's pacemaker, initiating each wave of electrical excitation
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What is the role of the AVN?
Atrioventricular node delays the impulse so the atria finish contracting before the ventricles begin
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Why do mammals need a double circulatory system?
To keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate and to re-pressurise blood after it passes through the low-pressure lungs
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What produces surfactant and why is it needed?
Alveolar cells produce surfactant to reduce surface tension and stop alveoli collapsing
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Explain the cohesion-tension theory in xylem
Water evaporates from leaf mesophyll cells (transpiration), pulling a continuous water column up the xylem via cohesion between water molecules and adhesion to vessel walls
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What is the mass flow hypothesis of translocation?
Active loading of sucrose at the source lowers water potential, drawing water in by osmosis and raising pressure; sucrose removal at the sink does the reverse, so mass flow occurs from high to low pressure
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Why is xylem transport passive but phloem transport active?
Xylem relies purely on transpiration pull and physical forces; phloem requires ATP-driven active loading of sucrose into sieve tubes by companion cells
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Give two structural features of veins suited to their function
Thinner walls than arteries and valves to prevent backflow of blood at low pressure
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What is the diffusion distance across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
Less than 1 micrometre
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What four features define a good exchange surface?
Large surface area, thin barrier/short diffusion pathway, steep concentration gradient maintained by flow, and selective permeability
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In what order does the wave of excitation travel through the heart?
SAN, then delayed at AVN, then Bundle of His, then Purkyne fibres to the ventricle apex
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Genetics & variation

Meiosis and variation

Meiosis produces four genetically different haploid cells from one diploid cell, halving the chromosome number from 2n to n. Two rounds of division follow one round of DNA replication.

  • Independent segregation: homologous pairs line up randomly at metaphase I, so alleles assort independently. In humans (n=23) this gives 2^23 possible gamete combinations.
  • Crossing over: at prophase I, non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange sections at chiasmata, creating new allele combinations on a chromosome.
  • Random fertilisation adds further variation: 2^23 x 2^23 possible zygote combinations from two parents.

Gene mutations

A mutation is a change in the base sequence of DNA. Types include substitution, insertion and deletion. Insertions and deletions usually cause a frameshift, altering every codon downstream, so they tend to be more damaging than substitutions. Substitutions may be silent (due to the degenerate genetic code, several codons code for the same amino acid), missense (one amino acid changes, e.g. sickle-cell anaemia from a single base substitution in the beta-globin gene) or nonsense (creates a premature stop codon, truncating the protein).

Chromosome mutations

Changes in chromosome number arise from non-disjunction, where chromosomes fail to separate correctly at anaphase of meiosis. This produces gametes with an extra or missing chromosome. Common mistake: students confuse non-disjunction (whole chromosome error) with a gene mutation (base-sequence error) - keep them separate in exam answers.

Genetic diversity and natural selection

Genetic diversity is the number of different alleles of genes in a population. It provides the raw material for natural selection. Directional selection shifts the mean value of a characteristic (e.g. antibiotic resistance in bacteria); stabilising selection favours the mean and reduces variation (e.g. human birth weight).

Population genetics

The Hardy-Weinberg equation predicts allele and genotype frequencies in a non-evolving population: p + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p is the frequency of the dominant allele and q the recessive allele. It only applies if there is no selection, mutation, migration or genetic drift, mating is random, and the population is large.

Species and courtship

A species is a group of organisms with similar morphology, physiology and behaviour that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring. Courtship behaviour ensures individuals recognise members of their own species, find a mate capable of breeding, and stimulate the release of gametes.

  • Meiosis halves the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n) over two divisions following one DNA replication.
  • Independent segregation of humans 23 homologous pairs gives 2^23 possible genetically different gametes.
  • Crossing over happens between non-sister chromatids at chiasmata during prophase I of meiosis.
  • Insertions and deletions cause a frameshift mutation, changing every codon downstream of the mutation.
  • The genetic code is degenerate, meaning a substitution mutation can be silent if it codes for the same amino acid.
  • Sickle-cell anaemia results from a single base substitution mutation in the gene coding for beta-globin.
  • Non-disjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate correctly at anaphase of meiosis, causing aneuploidy.
  • The Hardy-Weinberg equation is p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p + q = 1 for a two-allele gene.
  • Hardy-Weinberg only applies with no selection, mutation, migration or genetic drift, random mating, and a large population.
  • Directional selection shifts a population mean (e.g. antibiotic resistance); stabilising selection favours the mean and reduces variation.
  • A species is defined as organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
  • Courtship behaviour helps ensure mating occurs between members of the same species and triggers gamete release.
What does meiosis produce from one diploid parent cell?
Four genetically different haploid daughter cells.
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How many possible gamete combinations arise from independent segregation in humans?
2^23, since humans have 23 homologous pairs.
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Where and when does crossing over occur?
Between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at chiasmata during prophase I of meiosis.
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What is a frameshift mutation and which mutation types cause it?
A shift in the reading frame that alters every codon downstream; caused by insertion or deletion mutations.
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Why can a substitution mutation be silent?
Because the genetic code is degenerate, so a different codon can still code for the same amino acid.
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What causes sickle-cell anaemia at the DNA level?
A single base substitution mutation in the gene coding for beta-globin, changing one amino acid.
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What is non-disjunction?
Failure of chromosomes (or chromatids) to separate correctly at anaphase during meiosis, producing gametes with an abnormal chromosome number.
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State the Hardy-Weinberg equation.
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p + q = 1 (p = dominant allele frequency, q = recessive allele frequency).
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List the conditions required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
No selection, mutation, migration or genetic drift; random mating; large population size.
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What is directional selection and give an example.
Selection that shifts the population mean towards one extreme; example: antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
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What is stabilising selection and give an example.
Selection that favours the mean phenotype and reduces variation; example: human birth weight.
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Define a species.
A group of organisms with similar morphology, physiology and behaviour that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
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What are the roles of courtship behaviour?
It helps individuals recognise the same species, find a mate able to breed, and stimulates gamete release.
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What is genetic diversity within a population?
The number of different alleles of genes present in that population, which provides the raw material for natural selection.
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Why does random fertilisation increase variation further?
Because any of 2^23 possible gametes from one parent can combine with any of 2^23 from the other, giving huge numbers of possible zygote combinations.
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Energy transfers (photosynthesis & respiration)

Photosynthesis: the big picture

Photosynthesis happens in the chloroplast and has two linked stages.

  • Light-dependent reactions: occur on the thylakoid membranes, need light, produce ATP, reduced NADP and oxygen (from the photolysis of water).
  • Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle): occur in the stroma, use ATP and reduced NADP from stage one to fix CO2 into triose phosphate (TP), which builds glucose, lipids and amino acids.

Light-dependent reactions in detail

  • Photosystem II (PSII, absorbs best at 680 nm) and Photosystem I (PSI, 700 nm) sit in the thylakoid membrane.
  • Light excites electrons in chlorophyll; they pass along an electron transport chain, releasing energy used to pump protons into the thylakoid space, building a proton gradient.
  • Protons flow back through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis) making ATP.
  • Water is split (photolysis) at PSII to replace lost electrons, releasing O2 and H+ ions.
  • At PSI, re-energised electrons combine with H+ and NADP to form reduced NADP.

Calvin cycle (light-independent)

  • CO2 combines with ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP, a 5-carbon compound) using the enzyme rubisco, forming an unstable 6-carbon compound that splits into two molecules of glycerate 3-phosphate (GP, 3-carbon).
  • GP is reduced to triose phosphate (TP) using ATP and reduced NADP from the light stage.
  • Some TP is used to make glucose and other organic molecules; most regenerates RuBP (using more ATP), keeping the cycle turning.
  • Common mistake: RuBP is 5-carbon, GP is 3-carbon, TP is 3-carbon; students often mix these up under pressure.

Respiration: the four stages

  • Glycolysis (cytoplasm, anaerobic): glucose (6C) split into two pyruvate (3C); net gain of 2 ATP and 2 reduced NAD.
  • Link reaction (mitochondrial matrix): pyruvate decarboxylated and oxidised to acetyl CoA (2C), releasing CO2 and reducing NAD.
  • Krebs cycle (matrix): acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate; releases CO2, produces reduced NAD, reduced FAD and 1 ATP per turn (x2 per glucose).
  • Oxidative phosphorylation (inner mitochondrial membrane): reduced NAD/FAD are oxidised, electrons pass along the electron transport chain, protons pumped out then flow back through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis) to make most of the ATP; oxygen is the final electron acceptor, forming water.

Numbers and common mistakes

  • Roughly 30 to 32 ATP produced per glucose molecule via aerobic respiration (older syllabus figure of 38 is outdated; AQA now favours ~30).
  • Anaerobic respiration in animals: pyruvate to lactate, regenerates NAD, no further ATP.
  • Anaerobic respiration in yeast/plants: pyruvate to ethanol and CO2 (decarboxylation), also regenerates NAD.
  • Chemiosmosis is the shared mechanism in both photosynthesis and respiration; do not describe ATP synthase as 'making ATP directly from light or food' — it is always proton-gradient driven.
  • Don't confuse the location: light-dependent = thylakoid, Calvin cycle = stroma, Krebs = matrix, oxidative phosphorylation = inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae).
  • Light-dependent reactions occur on the thylakoid membrane; light-independent reactions occur in the stroma.
  • PSII absorbs light best at 680 nm; PSI absorbs best at 700 nm.
  • Photolysis splits water at PSII, releasing oxygen, protons and electrons.
  • Rubisco fixes CO2 onto RuBP (5-carbon) to form two molecules of GP (3-carbon).
  • GP is reduced to triose phosphate (TP) using ATP and reduced NADP from the light stage.
  • Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 reduced NAD per glucose, and occurs in the cytoplasm.
  • The link reaction converts pyruvate (3C) to acetyl CoA (2C), releasing CO2 and reducing NAD.
  • The Krebs cycle yields 1 ATP, 3 reduced NAD and 1 reduced FAD per turn, and turns twice per glucose.
  • Oxidative phosphorylation happens on the inner mitochondrial membrane and uses chemiosmosis to generate most ATP.
  • Aerobic respiration yields approximately 30 to 32 ATP per glucose molecule (not 38, the outdated figure).
  • Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, combining with electrons and protons to form water.
  • Anaerobic respiration in animals converts pyruvate to lactate; in yeast and plants it converts pyruvate to ethanol and CO2, both regenerating NAD.
Where do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur?
On the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast.
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Where does the Calvin cycle occur?
In the stroma of the chloroplast.
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What wavelength does PSII absorb best, and what about PSI?
PSII absorbs best at 680 nm, PSI absorbs best at 700 nm.
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What is photolysis and where does it happen?
The light-driven splitting of water at PSII, releasing oxygen, protons and electrons.
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What enzyme fixes CO2 in the Calvin cycle, and onto what molecule?
Rubisco fixes CO2 onto RuBP (a 5-carbon compound).
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What immediate product forms when CO2 combines with RuBP?
An unstable 6-carbon compound that splits into two molecules of GP (glycerate 3-phosphate, 3-carbon).
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What converts GP into triose phosphate (TP)?
ATP and reduced NADP from the light-dependent reactions, in a reduction reaction.
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Where does glycolysis occur and what is its net ATP yield?
In the cytoplasm; net gain of 2 ATP and 2 reduced NAD per glucose.
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What happens in the link reaction?
Pyruvate (3C) is decarboxylated and oxidised to acetyl CoA (2C), releasing CO2 and reducing NAD.
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What does one turn of the Krebs cycle produce?
1 ATP, 3 reduced NAD and 1 reduced FAD, plus CO2 released; it turns twice per glucose.
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Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place and what mechanism makes ATP?
On the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae), via chemiosmosis through ATP synthase.
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What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration, and what does it form?
Oxygen, which combines with electrons and protons to form water.
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Roughly how much ATP is produced per glucose molecule in aerobic respiration?
Approximately 30 to 32 ATP (not the outdated figure of 38).
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What happens to pyruvate in anaerobic respiration in animal cells?
It is converted to lactate, regenerating NAD but producing no further ATP.
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What happens to pyruvate in anaerobic respiration in yeast and plant cells?
It is decarboxylated to ethanol and CO2, regenerating NAD.
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Response, homeostasis & gene expression

Homeostasis basics

  • Homeostasis is keeping internal conditions (blood glucose, water potential, body temperature, pH) within narrow limits around a set point.
  • Control uses negative feedback: a receptor detects a change, a coordinator (usually the nervous or endocrine system) processes it, and an effector (muscle or gland) brings the level back to normal.
  • Positive feedback amplifies a change instead of reversing it - only used in a few processes like childbirth (oxytocin) and the action potential's depolarisation phase.

The nervous system

  • A reflex arc: receptor - sensory neurone - relay neurone (in spinal cord/CNS) - motor neurone - effector. Fast and involuntary.
  • Resting potential is about -70mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in, using ATP) and K+ leaking out through channels.
  • An action potential: threshold around -55mV triggers voltage-gated Na+ channels to open, causing rapid depolarisation to about +40mV, then voltage-gated K+ channels open for repolarisation, followed by a brief hyperpolarisation.
  • The all-or-nothing law: a stimulus below threshold produces no action potential; above threshold, every action potential has the same size regardless of stimulus strength - stronger stimuli give higher FREQUENCY, not bigger spikes.
  • Myelinated neurones use saltatory conduction, jumping between nodes of Ranvier, which is much faster than continuous conduction in unmyelinated fibres.
  • At a synapse, calcium ions flood in when the action potential arrives, triggering vesicles to release neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) across the synaptic cleft to bind receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.

Hormonal control of blood glucose

  • High blood glucose: beta cells in the islets of Langerhans release insulin, which binds receptors so liver and muscle cells take up glucose and convert it to glycogen (glycogenesis).
  • Low blood glucose: alpha cells release glucagon, which triggers glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and glucose production from non-carbohydrates (gluconeogenesis).
  • Type 1 diabetes = no insulin produced (autoimmune destruction of beta cells), treated with insulin injections. Type 2 diabetes = cells become insulin-resistant, linked to lifestyle/obesity, managed with diet or medication.

Gene expression and control

  • Not all genes are expressed in every cell - specialisation happens because different genes are switched on or off (epigenetic control), often via DNA methylation or histone modification, without changing the base sequence.
  • Transcription factors control gene expression by binding to promoter regions and either stimulating or inhibiting RNA polymerase binding.
  • Common mistake: students confuse the genome (all DNA) with the transcriptome (all mRNA transcribed) and proteome (all proteins made) - only some of the genome is ever expressed as protein in a given cell.
  • Oncogenes (mutated proto-oncogenes) and tumour suppressor genes (like faulty p53) can both lead to uncontrolled cell division and tumours when regulation fails.
  • Resting potential is about -70mV, maintained by the sodium-potassium pump moving 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per cycle using ATP.
  • Action potential threshold is around -55mV; depolarisation peaks near +40mV before repolarisation via K+ efflux.
  • The all-or-nothing law means action potentials are always the same size - stimulus strength changes frequency, not amplitude.
  • Myelinated neurones conduct impulses faster via saltatory conduction, jumping between nodes of Ranvier.
  • Calcium ion influx at the presynaptic knob triggers neurotransmitter vesicle release into the synaptic cleft.
  • Insulin is released by beta cells and lowers blood glucose by promoting glycogenesis in the liver and muscles.
  • Glucagon is released by alpha cells and raises blood glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
  • Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune destruction of beta cells with no insulin production; Type 2 is insulin resistance, often lifestyle-linked.
  • Negative feedback restores the norm; positive feedback amplifies change, as seen in childbirth (oxytocin) and depolarisation.
  • Epigenetic control (e.g. DNA methylation, histone modification) switches genes on or off without altering the base sequence.
  • Transcription factors regulate gene expression by binding promoter regions to control RNA polymerase binding.
  • Faulty tumour suppressor genes (e.g. p53) or activated oncogenes can cause uncontrolled cell division and tumour formation.
What is the approximate resting potential of a neurone?
About -70mV, maintained mainly by the sodium-potassium pump and K+ leak channels.
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What triggers depolarisation during an action potential?
Voltage-gated sodium channels open once the threshold (around -55mV) is reached, letting Na+ rush in.
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State the all-or-nothing law.
Once threshold is reached, every action potential is the same size; stimulus strength is coded by frequency of impulses, not size.
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Why is saltatory conduction faster?
The impulse jumps between nodes of Ranvier in myelinated neurones instead of travelling continuously along the membrane.
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What ion triggers neurotransmitter release at a synapse?
Calcium ions (Ca2+), which flood into the presynaptic knob and cause vesicles to fuse with the membrane.
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Which cells release insulin and where are they found?
Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
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What effect does glucagon have on the liver?
It stimulates glycogenolysis (glycogen breakdown) and gluconeogenesis, raising blood glucose.
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What causes Type 1 diabetes?
Autoimmune destruction of the beta cells, so no insulin is produced.
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Give an example of positive feedback in the body.
Oxytocin release during childbirth, which increases contractions until birth occurs.
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What is epigenetic control?
Regulation of gene expression (e.g. via DNA methylation or histone modification) without changing the underlying DNA sequence.
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What do transcription factors do?
Bind to promoter regions of genes and stimulate or inhibit RNA polymerase binding, controlling transcription.
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Define the term proteome.
The full range of proteins that a cell or organism is able to produce, translated from the expressed genes.
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What is the role of tumour suppressor genes like p53?
They normally halt the cell cycle or trigger apoptosis when DNA is damaged; if faulty, cells divide uncontrollably.
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What are oncogenes?
Mutated forms of proto-oncogenes that promote uncontrolled cell division, contributing to cancer.
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Describe the path of a simple reflex arc.
Receptor - sensory neurone - relay neurone (CNS) - motor neurone - effector.
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